TỔNG HỢP ĐỀ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH
PRACTICE TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. bats                B. days                     C. dates                                  D. speaks
2. A. sugar              B. supportive            C. sacrifice                            D. secure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. confide                        B. gather                                C. maintain                            D. reject
4. A. leftover                       B. counterpart                       C. supporter                          D. maximum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
5. My dad is always (A) willing to give (B) his hands (C) with cleaning the house. (D)
6. In particularist cultures, (A) formal rules (B) are normally bent to fit the needs (C) of each situation or the important (D) of a person.
7. It is difficult (A) to write rules that (B) tell exactly when (C) we should apologize, and (D) it is not difficult to learn how to do it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
8. The world’s first computer……………by the University of Pennsylvania in 1946.
     A. is built                         B. has built                            C. was built                           D. were built
9. Whatever we expect from………….future, it is noted that progress has never moved in straight lines.
     A. a                                   B. an                                       C. the                                      D. some
10. The more challenging the exercises are, ……………we feel.
     A. the less bored             B. the least bored                 C. the less boring                  D. the least boring
11. The teacher gave the students instructions on……………for the final exams.
     A. how to get preparation                                             B. how they get to prepare
     C. how they they got to prepare                                   D. how to get prepared
12. We would have sent him a Christmas card if we……………his address last year.
     A. know                           B. knew                                  C. have known                      D. had known
13. In England, state school system is free for all students and paid……………by the state.
     A. for                                B. of                                        C. by                                       D. to
14. While taking with others, if one’s posture is straight but relaxed, he or she is expressing confidence and……………
     A. friendly                       B. friendship                         C. friendlier                           D. friendliness
15. ……………species must be save in order to maintain the balance in the ecosystem.
     A. Threatened                 B. Extinct                               C. Dead                                  D. Risky
16. In order to……………other’s attention, we can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of communication.
     A. give                              B. focus                                  C. pay                                     D. draw
17. When communicating in English, it is necessary to prepare a person for our……………
     A. depart                          B. department                       C. departing                           D. departure
18. “……………tears, ran back to my room, thinking I would never feel at home at college.”
     A. Fighting with              B. Fighting back                   C. Fighting for                       D. Fighting out
19. When my roommate got sick, she……………my typing and having a light on while she was trying to sleep.
     A. blamed                        B. blamed on                         C. blamed for                        D. blamed over
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
20. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their friend Bob’s new hairstyle.
      - Diana: “Bob looks so impressive with his new hairstyle, Anne.”
      - Anne: “……………”
      A. Fine. I guess.    B. Yes, he looks so different.   C. Thank you so much.    D. You can’t believe it!
21. Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
      - Professor: “Congratulations on your award.”
      - Mary: “……………”
      A. I like it that you understand.                                  B. I do appreciate your supervision.
      C. I can’t agree more with yours.                               D. I feel so sorry for you, professor.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
22. English language proficiency requirements for undergraduate courses are considerably demanding.
      A. understanding          B. applicability                     C. fitness                                D. competence
23. Mobile libraries bring books to children in many small communities. These libraries travel from towns to towns in cars, vans, or trucks. 
      A. Staying in one place                                                B. Being bent easily and quickly
      C. Moving from place to place                                   D. Changing shape or expression easily friendly
     
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
24. A lot of people think that Angelina Jolie is really hot.
      A. beautiful                    B. cool                                    C. unattractive                      D. memorable
25. I’m at a loss to how you are going to pass your subjects without studying. All you do is to play video games all day.
      A. to try to understand                                                       B. to lose the game         C. to feel like a stranger                          D. to know a lot
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
26. It is likely that the principal will attend the teacher-parent meeting.
      A. The principal will not attend the teacher-parent meeting.
      B. The principal may attend the teacher-parent meeting.
      C. The principal must attend the teacher-parent meeting.
      D. The principal can’t attend the teacher-parent meeting.
27. “You are the only child in your family, aren’t you?” she asked me.
      A. She asked me whether I was the only child in my family.
      B. She did not know that I am the only child in my family.
      C. She wanted to know why I did not have brothers or sisters.
28. First impression on university life varies from student to student.
      A. Each student has his/her own first impression on university life.
      B. No two students share the same experience at the university.
      C. Students hold different viewpoints on university life.
      D. University life makes the students vary in impression.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of the sentences in the following questions.
29. Ben made all attempts to carry out the project. Finally, he completed it with satisfactory result.
      A. But for his attempts, the project could not have been completed with satisfactory result.
      B. If he had not attempted to carry out the project, it wouldn’t have been completed.
      C. His attempts made the project finally a complete and satisfactory success. 
      D. He did not make any attempt because he knew that the project could never be completed.
30. We should quickly find the solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those concerned will increased.
      A. If we can solve this problem soon, we’ll lower the impact on all of our concerns.
      B. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lowered.
      C. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be better solved.
      D. The sooner we find the solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
There are open campaigns to save species that are endangered such as wolves and buffalo in the US, and red squirrels and hedgehogs in Britain. In rural areas people generally have much less romantic ideas (31)……………..animals. In Britain hunting foxes with dogs arouses hostile feelings, especially among people living in town, but the law to ban it, (32)……………..came into effect in 2005, is seen by many people living in the country as attack on their way of life. In Britain and the US many people are concerned about animal (33)…………….., especially the use of animals in scientific research and public pressure had forced many cosmetics manufacturers to stop (34)……………..products on animals. Several groups, including the Animal Liberation Front and PETA, strongly oppose the use of (35)……………..animals in experiments and animal rights activists organize protests at laboratories where animals are used. Sometimes people who work or invest in companies that own the laboratories are threatened.
(Source: Oxford Guide to British and American Culture, 2nd Ed.)
31. A. about                         B. with                                    C. in                                        D. on
32. A. who                            B. which                                 C. this                                     D. that
33. A. behavior                   B. population                        C. lifecycle                            D. rights
34. A. marketing                 B. testing                                C. launching                          D. developing
35. A. alive                          B. lively                                 C. live                                     D. lived
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Naming customs are different around the world. In most cultures, however, people have at least two names: a family name and given name. Your given name is the name you receive when you are born. Your family name is the name you share with other people in your family. In the United States, the family name is often called the last name, and the given name and the given name is often called the first name. However, the order of two names is not the same everywhere. For example, in many Asian countries, the family name is first and the given name is second. When two people from different cultures meet, sometimes they use incorrect name. This can cause embarrassment.
Family names can show something about family’s early history. The origin of many English family names is a place, like London, or a job, such as Farmer or Shoemaker. A long time ago, these families probably worked as farmers or shoemakers. Swedish and Danish family names often mean son of……. For example, Johansson means son of Johan. In South Korea, there are only about 250 family names. These names go back hundreds of year to vary old clans. About half of all Koreans have one of the three most common family names – Kim, Park or Lee.
There is generally no choice about family name, but there is much more choice about given names. Parents choose their child’s name for many different reasons. They may select a name that sounds beautiful or means something special. These names may have meaning like peaceful or happiness. In some cultures, there may be a connection between children’s names and when or how they were born. For example, a Yoruba child in Nigeria might have a name like Sunday or Born on a Sunny Day. In some countries, parents may pay money to a professional baby namer to help them find a good name. They want to find a name that will be lucky for their child.
(Source: Jessica William, Making Connection 1, 2nd Ed, Cambridge, 2014)
36. It is stated in the first paragraph that when two people from different cultures meet,…………….
      A: they very often misaddress each other                B: they may misuse each other’s names
      C: they will misunderstand each other                      D: they do not know how to say their name
37. According to the passage, what can be learn from a person’s family name?
      A: his age                B: his name               C: his family’s history              D: his parents’ birthplace
38. What does the word “clans” in the passage mostly mean?
      A: a large group of families                                        B: upper class families
      C: lower class families                                                 D: a number of royal families
39. The word “they” in the passage refer to…………….
      A: names                        B: children                            C: meanings                          D: parents
40. What is NOT mentioned as a reason for parents to choose names for their child?
      A: a name that show how a child is born                  B: a name that will be lucky for their child
      C: a name that means something special                  D: a name that bring strength to the child
41. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
      A: Naming is a universal culture.               B: People can change their lives by changing their names
      C: People can choose their own names.      D: Name are selected in accordance with local customs.
42. What can be the best title for the reading passage?
      A: Naming Customs     B: Beautiful Names              C: Naming of Fun        D: Naming for a Reason
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Government officials at national borders look very carefully at passports and visas. They want to be sure that the people who are entering the country are not dangerous. They use technology to help them decide who may enter the country, officials at the bolder check their computers for important information about these travelers. They can check if travelers have been in the country before and if they have done anything wrong. Officials also examine the traveler’s documents to see if they are real. Some people try to cross the border without permission. They use fake passport or visas. Officials at the border can use computer technology to check whether these documents are real or fake.
Technology has been helpful in other ways, too. In the second half of the twentieth century, passports were the major form of identification for travelers. Now there are few forms of identification that use technology. One example is a machine that can read fingerprints. When travelers enter the country, they put their fingers on a machine that scans them. In other words, the machine takes a picture of the finger prints and save the picture in a computer. It can also send the picture to government officials who are far from the border. Those officials can compare the picture to fingerprints of many other people. If the traveler’s fingerprints are the same as fingerprints of a dangerous person, the traveler may not enter the country. This technology is now in use at many airports all over the world.
One person’s fingerprints are different from another person’s fingerprints. Therefore, many countries use fingerprints as a good form of identification. However, it is possible to trick the machines that scan them. In 2008, a women at a Japanese airport put tape on her fingers. The tape had another person’s fingerprints on it, so she was able to enter Japan without permission.
As a result of these problems, some airports are using another part of the body for identification – the iris. The iris is the color part of the eye. New machines can scan travelers’ irises and save the picture. Several airports are already using this technology, including airports in London and Qatar. Irises work better than fingerprints for identification. The iris had hundreds of very small lines in it. These lines are unique. In other words, everyone’s iris is different. Even twins have different irises. These new forms of technology have another advantage. They are fast. This makes lines at airports and borders shorter and helps travelers more quickly.
(Source: Jessica William, Making Connection 1, 2nd Ed, Cambridge, 2014)
43: According to the first paragraph, which of the following is NOT important information about travelers?
        A: whether they have been in a country                  B: whether they have done anything wrong
        C: whether they have used fake documents           D: whether they have used computer
44: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that……………..
        A: dangerous people may try to cross borders with fake passports or visas
        B: dangerous people are deterred from entering a country
        C: those who have been in a country are not entitled to another country
        D: those who use fake passports or visas are not allow to enter a country
45: The word “It” in the passage refers to……………..
        A: computer                 B: machine                            C: picture                               D: technology
46: What does the word “trick” in the passage mostly mean?
        A: make use of             B: be of great advantage     C: run away with                  D: obtain by deception
47: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
        A: Passports and visas have always been the most common forms of identification.
        B: Fingerprints scanners can never make mistakes, hence being used everywhere.
        C: The iris has been used as a form of identification at the world’s busiest airports.
        D: Everyone has their own fingerprints and iris to identify themselves or others.
48: Which of the following best gives the main idea of the reading passage?
        A: Paper documents are no longer important as form of identification.
        B: Everyone must produce correct documents when crossing a national border.
        C: The way that officials check travelers at the borders has been changing.
        D: In the future, no form of identification is required as national borders disappear.
49: This passage is most probably taken from……………..
        A: a travel guidebook                                                 B: a professional journal   
        C: a modern passport                                                  D: a custom official’s diary
50: Which of the following the best describes the reading passage?
        A: argumentative         B: imaginative                      C: entertaining                      D: informative
PRACTICE TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. hummock                    B. struggle                             C. industry                             D. subsidy
2. A. thesis                           B. ethane                                C. author                                D. feather
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. government                B. prohibit                             C. applicant                           D. habitat
4. A. sympathetic                B. participant                        C. curriculum                        D. discriminate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. Daniel doesn’t do well in school……………..his inability to concentrate on any one thing for longer than a minute or two.
     A. as                                 B. due to                                C. because                             D. in case
6. Even though she was much younger than the other children, Laura demanded……………..in the game they were playing. 
     A. including                    B. being included                 C. to include                          D. to be included
7. Many people lost their homes in the earthquake. The government needs to establish more shelters to care for those……………..have homes.
     A. who doesn’t               B. who don’t                         C. which doesn’t                  D. which don’t
8. You……………..be rich to be a success. Some of the most successful people I know haven’t got a penny to their name.
     A. don’t have to                       B. can’t                         C. shouldn’t                          D. mustn’t  
9. I know you feel bad now, Tommy, but try to put it out of your mind. By the time you’re an adult, you……………..all about it.
     A. forget                           B. will have forgotten          C. will be forgetting             D. are forgetting
10. The equator is an……………..line that divides the earth into two.
     A. imaginary                   B. imaginative                       C. imaginable                        D. imagination
11. The government is going to……………..the old building and build a new one.
     A. extinguish                   B. dissolve                             C. demolish                           D. excavate
12. They boy did a good……………..by helping the blind man cross the road.
     A. show                            B. deed                                   C. display                              D. feat
13. The principal wants to see you in his office……………..as he has something urgent to discuss with you.
     A. quickly                        B. suddenly                           C. abruptly                            D. immediately
14. The guest speaker gave a……………..speech just before the seminar began.
     A. swift                            B. limited                               C. brief                                   D. prompt
15. I had to……………..my trip because something urgent had come up.
     A. blow up                       B. pull in                                C. leave out                           D. call off
16. The students were told that the date for the next test had been……………..
     A. brought forward        B. brought over                     C. brought up                        D. brought off
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
17. – Quang: “What are you going to major in?”
     – Vinh: “………………”
     A. I’m going to take my final exam at the end of July.
     B. My parents want me to become a doctor or a pharmacist.
     C. My favourite subjects are maths, physics and English.
     D. I haven’t decided, but I’m learning towards biology.
18. – Waiter: “Hello, I’ll be your waiter today. Can I start you off with something to drink?”
      – Linh: “……………….”
      A. I’d like spaghetti or pasta.                                    B. Yes, I’ll have ices tea, please.
      C. Maybe I should get some ice-cream.                   D. Can I pay by credit card, please?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. His precise explanation of the report pleased the board of directors.
        A. timely                       B. exact                                  C. prompt                               D. ready
20. Bullying can hurt people in many different ways, emotionally and physically. Therefore, all the students in my class keep away from the bully.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. Cholera is rare in less developed countries due to poor water and sanitation conditions. It is estimated that 11 million cholera cases occur every year among children under 5 years of age.
        A. common                   B. ordinary                            C. general                              D. normal      
22. We waited for our grandmother at the departure hall of the airport for 5 hours as her flight was delayed.
        A. release                      B. appearance                       C. arrival                                D. transfer 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
23. He can’t hardly (A) remember the accident because (B) he was (C) only a four-year-old (D) boy when it occurred.
24. My uncle is in (A) Nha Trang on vacation, (B) but I wish he is (C) here so that he could help (D) me repair my bicycle.
25. A child (A) need to learn how to get (B) along with another (C) people and how to spend (D) his or her time wisely.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The Internet is a great place to look up information. The same information may be found in libraries, but the Internet makes the information (26)……………. 24 hours a day. Furthermore, information on the Internet maybe more up-to-date, and some would never be found in a library. The Internet is not a replacement for libraries, (27)……………. it is an extremely valuable supplement.
When you are (28)……………. to the Internet, you are ready to start searching. The basic step for finding what you are looking for in a fast and easy way is: Find a search engine. A search engine is a useful (29)……………. for looking up information on the Internet. Basically, it is an Internet site that will do the searching on the Internet for you. There are many different search engines and web sites for you to use. They are divided up (30)……………. several different categories for your convenience. This will allow you to select a site that will be better for searching different topic.
(Source: www eslpritables.com)
26. A. capable                     B. available                           C. manageable                      D. observable
27. A. so                               B. and                                     C. though                               D. but
28. A. facilitated                 B. connected                         C. attached                            D. purchased
29. A. room                          B. machine                            C. tool                                    D. pilot
30. A. into                            B. for                                      C. between                             D. with
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Curling is an event in the Winter Olympics that is that is played on an ice rink. This event requires a high level of skill and dexterity. The equipment includes stones with handles and brushes to sweep the ice.
Two teams of four compete to get a stone as close as possible to the centre of a series of concentric circles. Hitting the target is more complicated than it seems. The two teams alternate to throw their stones. It is possible to remove a stone from a play area by hitting it with another stone or to use a stone to protect another stone. To assist in the progress of the stone across the ice, the other players will use their brushes to sweep the path in front of the stone so as to influence the direction and distance it can travel.
In sixteenth century Scotland, stones were taken from the bottom of ponds. In North America, the metal-rimmed hubcaps of carriages with handles attached were used. In eighteenth century Canada, there were iron “stone” that weighed more than thirty kilograms. The game would have required more strength in the past than today.
Curling was first introduced as a break from the drudgery of work and a way of alleviating the monotony of the long winters. Curling is catching on today. There is an increase in the number of countries taking part in the Winter Olympics for this event. Ever since the beginning, this game has been enjoyed by both the young and old.
(Source: Comprehension Fast Forward 5 – J. Lee – SAP)
31. Curling is not for those who……………….
      A: like winter sports                                                     B: like to play team sports
      C: are not good with their hands                                D: have never been to the Winter Olympics
32. What does “the target” in the passage refer to?
      A: the concentric circles                                             B: the centre of the circles
      C: a stone that is blocking the player’s path            D: a stone that is used to guard another stone
33. Which of the following was never used in curling?                                              
      A: wheels                       B: stones                                C: iron “stones”                    D: hubcaps
34. How has curling changed over the years?
      A: It is not played in winter now.                              
      B: Players today do not have to be as strong as before.
      C: It is a game enjoyed by those of different ages.
      D: More than one country is playing the game now.
35. What does the writer tell the readers in this passage?
      A: The strategies to use to win a game.                     B: The different sports in the Winter Olympics.
      C: The importance of curling in the world today.   D: How curling began.
36. The word “influence” in the passage is closet in meaning to……………..       
      A: follow                        B: affect                                 C: attract                                D: remain
37. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
      A: Players need stones with handles and brushes to play curling.
      B: Players are not allowed to touch the stone to influence its direction.
      C: The two teams throw their stones at the same time when playing curling.
      D: There are more and more countries participating in curling Winter Olympics.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Bees are flying insects that feed on nectar and pollen. They are usually yellow and black and cover in fuzzy hair that makes collecting pollen easier. A bee’s body is similar to that of other insects – for instance, an ant – with three major sections: the head, the middle section called the thorax, and the last and the last section called the abdomen. The head of a bee has five eyes for seeing and two antennae for touching and smelling. Two sets of wings and three sets of legs can be found on a bee’s thorax. Many types of bees have stingers. The bee stinger is a bee’s protection from danger. The stingers are around 12 millimeters long. There are over 20,000 known bee species in the world. The best known is probably the honeybee.
Honeybees live in beehives, which have a distinct order that helps things run smoothly. At the bottom of the totem pole are the workers. Workers are young female bees. Some of their main duties include going out to find food (nectar and pollen), building the hive, and keeping it clean. Honeybees will travel up to eight miles if necessary to find nectar and pollen to bring back to the hive. Worker bees are actually the only bees that ever do any stinging. When this does happen, it is usually because they are trying to protect their hive from harm. A bee rarely stings when it is away from the hive, but it might sting if it senses danger. The lifespan of a worker bee is anywhere from 4 to 9 months.
The queen honeybee is the biggest bee in the hive. There is usually only one per hive, and her job is to grow the family by laying eggs that will become the next generation of honeybees. She lays over a thousand eggs per day and can live anywhere from 3 to 5 years. When the time comes for a new queen to take over, some larvae are placed in special chambers to grow queen bees. After they hatch, they are fattened up with royal jelly, a nutritious substance that worker bees secrete. It usually takes about two weeks for a newly hatched female bee to grow into a queen bee. The first female bee to become a queen bee kills the other potential queen bees.
(Source: http://www.readworks.org/passages)
38. What is a bee?
        A: an insect that lives near water and eats fish
        B: a red-and-black insect that lives underground
        C: a flying insect that collects nectar and pollen
        D: a crawling insect with two sets of legs and no wings
39. What does the passage describe?
        A: wings, legs, mouths and trees                               B: totem poles and winter weather
        C: poison and measurement                                      D: different honeybees in a beehive
40. The word “that” in the passage refer to……………….
        A: the hair                    B: the head                            C: the body                            D: the thorax
41. Different bees in a hive have different duties. What evidence from the passage support this statement?
        A: Worker bees gather food; the queen bee lays eggs.
        B: Be stingers are about 12 millimeters long.
        C: Bees have two sets of wings and three sets of legs.
        D: The honeybee is probably the best known be species
42. Which of the following does NOT describe a bee?
        A: two antennae          B: five eyes                           C: three sets of legs              D: two wings
43. What is this passage mainly about?
        A: honeybees                                                               B: the bodies of bees          
        C: different types of bees                                          D: the antennae and wings of bees
44. What does the word “species” in the passage mean?                                            
        A: colors or shades     B: orders or levels                C: kinds or types                  D: duties or jobs
45. Which of the following statement is NOT true according to the passage?
        A: The abdomen is one of the three sections of the bee’s body.
        B: The main duty of worker bees is to protect their hive from harm.
        C: The lifespan of the queen honeybee is from 3 to 5 years.
        D: The royal jelly is a nutritious substance produced by worker bees.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46. I have been repairing the bicycle for half an hour.
        A. The bicycle will have been repaired for half an hour.
        B. Half an hour has needed for repairing the bicycle.
        C. Fr half an hour the bicycle is being repaired by me.
        D. The bicycle has been repaired for half an hour.
47. As soon as I arrived home, someone knocked at the door.
        A. I had to arrive home as someone knocked at the door.
        B. Had someone knocked at the door, I would have arrived home.
        C. No sooner had I arrived home than someone knocked at the door.
        D. I hardly knew someone knocked at the doors as I just arrived home.
48. It’s not a good idea to borrow a lot of money from a bank.
        A. It’s better to avoid borrowing a lot of money from a bank.
        B. It’s a good time now to borrow a lot of money from a bank.
        C. It doesn’t matter when borrowing a lot of money from a bank.
        D. It sounds nice to try to borrow a lot of money from a bank.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is different in meaning to each of the following questions.
49. I shouldn’t bother to clean the windows today as it’s going to rain.
        A. It is not worth cleaning the windows today as it’s going to rain.
        B. There is no point in cleaning the windows today as it’s going to rain.
        C. It is no good cleaning the windows today as it’s going to rain.
        D. There is no trouble in cleaning the windows today as it’s going to rain.
50. I think Julia is so young that she can’t look after her sister.
        A. I think Julia is not old enough to look after her sister.
        B. I think Julia is too old to take care of her sister.
        C. I think Julia is such a young girl that she can’t look after her sister.
        D. I think Julia is too young to take care of her sister.
PRACTICE TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. handle                         B. islander                             C. volcanic                            D. stagnant
2. A. challenge                    B. chief                                  C. chart                                  D. chorus
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. pressure                      B. crossbar                            C. decline                              D. product
4. A. complement                B. policeman                         C. substantial                        D. interpret
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. If the world’s tropical forests continue to disappear at their present rate, many animal species…………….extinct.
     A. became                        B. would have become        C. will become                      D. would become
6. The mechanic said that he expects…………….the brakes on the car before we pick it up.
     A. fixing                           B. being fixed                       C. to have fixed                    D. to have been fixed
7. Knowing several…………….helpful if you work for an international corporation.
     A. languages are             B. language is                        C.  language is                       D. language are
8. A newborn baby can neither walk nor crawl. A newborn antelope, …………….can run within minutes of birth.
     A. however                      B. nevertheless                     C. otherwise                          D. even though
9. It was not until David stopped smoking…………….healthy again.
     A. did he feel                  B. that he started to feel               C. then he felt              D. did he start to feel
10. With no…………….for his own safety, he jumped into the river to save the girl from drowning.
     A. thinking                      B. thoughtless                       C. thoughtfulness                 D. thought
11. Many restaurants do not…………….their customers to bring pets into the premises.
     A. require                        B. discourage                        C. permit                                D. insist
12. Peter remained as…………….as a mouse throughout the whole lesson.
     A. quiet                            B. idle                                     C. frightened                         D. attentive
13. The city centre is quite a…………….away from my house. It takes me nearly an hour to drive there.
     A. journey                       B. space                                 C. length                                D. distance
14. The bear ran away when it was…………….by the bees.
     A. bitten                           B. stung                                  B. pierced                              D. struck
15. Tom had to…………….three forms and pay a fine before they allowed him to take his car back.
     A. give out                       B. turn up                               C. fill out                               D. put in
16. The principal has…………….an urgent meeting with the teachers.
     A. called for                    B. picked out                         C. turned on                          D. made up
 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
17. – Linh “What have you been doing recently?”
      –  Phuong: “……………”
      A. Very tired after the exam.                                      B. Mostly studying.
      C. Really exciting.                                                        D. Keen on soccer and tennis.
18. – Mary: How is your project going, Nhung?”
      – Nhung: “……………”
      A. I’m working with John and Sally.                         B. What? Is it going to finish soon?
      C. Great! Couldn’t be better.                                      D. Do you really want to go?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. They searched the village but it was without any inhabitants. Everything was very quiet.
      A. deserted                     B. remote                               C. barren                                D. isolated
20. A recent survey reveals that population density in the metropolis is decreasing.
      A. proves                        B. displays                             C. imparts                              D. discloses
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. Using more natural resources without degrading the planet any further is this century’s biggest challenge.
      A. improving                 B. generating                         C. destroying                         D. preventing
22. That house is occupied for three years now. It must be haunted since no one is renting or buying it.
      A. cleaned                      B. vacant                                C. taken                                  D. absent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
23. Antarctic blue whales (A) can be 100 foot long (B) and weigh more than any (C) dinosaur that ever (D) lived.
24. By the time (A) Michael arrived to help, (B) we have already (C) finished moving (D) everything.
25. Psychologists are trained (A) to encourage their (B) patients to talk for (C) the things that are causing (D) them difficulty.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The eye is a dedicate sense organ. Even the areas around our eyes get bruised easily. (26)…………… our eyes are sensitive organs, we should take extra care of them. Any type of injury to the eye can become serious and should be (27)……………without delay. Even if there appears to be no obvious damage to the area, it is wise to have any eye injury evaluated by an ophthalmologist.
Eye injuries can be the (28)……………of a laceration, a chemical burn, an embedded object in the eye or a blow to the eye. Even a small foreign particle such as soap solution in the eye, if it is not removed properly, can damage the eye.
Common signs and symptoms of a possible eye injury (29)……………a visible bruise or cut, a pain in or around the eye and sensitivity to light. The inability to keep the eye open, blurred or impaired (30) …………… constant tearing, rapid blinking and headache are also telltale signs of an injured eye.
(Source: Cloze Fast Forward 4 – Isabelle Lim – SAP)
26. A. While                        B. Although                           C. Because                             D. Unless
27. A. treated                       B. learned                              C. closed                                D. looked
28. A. pressure                    B. answer                               C. target                                 D. result
29. A. include                      B. consist                               C. relate                                 D. discover
30. A. observation              B. awareness                         C. disease                              D. vision
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart was born in 1756 in Australia. He would become one of the best composers to ever live. He started to write and play music before he was even eight years old!
As a three-year-old, Mozart already loved music. He would sit on the floor and listen to his father teach his older sister. She was learning to play the piano. Mozart looked up to his sister, and he copied her playing. Mozart’s father noticed Mozart’s talent in music. He began to teach his son. Mozart was a fast learner. Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs.
Before long, Mozart wrote his own musical composition at the age of five. He knew how to read and write music before he could read or write words! His first piece was very short.
Soon, Mozart’s father and the family toured own the major music centers in Western Europe. Mozart played music in the cities. He played for nobles and royalty. Many times he played music with his sister. During the tour, Mozart met some musicians and learned from them. One of the musicians was Johann Christian Bach, the youngest son of Johann Sebastian Bach.
When he was eight years old, Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra. Before long, he had written his first symphony.
Mozart died on December 5, 1791. He was only 35 years old, but he composed more than 600 musical pieces. More than 200 years later, Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever.
                                                                                               (Source: http://www.readworks.org/passages)
31. When did Mozart start to write and play music?
      A: before he was 5 years old                                      B: before he was 8 eight years old
      C: when he was 10 years old                                      D: when he was 35 years old
32. The passage describes the early years of Mozart’s life. Which of the following events happened first?
      A: Mozart wrote his first own musical composition
      B: Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra.
      C: Mozart toured all the major music centers in Western Europe.
      D: Mozart listened to his father teach his sister how to play music.
33. Mozart was a very gifted child. What evidence from the passage supports his conclusion?
      A: Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs.
      B: While touring different cities throughout Europe, Mozart played for nobles and royalty.
      C: Mozart was only 35 years old when he died.
      D: Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever.
34. Who taught Mozart how to play music?
      A: Johann Christian Bach           B: Johann Sebastian Bach           C: his father             D: his sister
35. The word “composed” in the passage is closest in meaning to…………….     
      A: played                       B: taught                                C: purchased                         D: wrote
36. Where would this passage most likely to be found?                                             
      A: in a novel about Mozart                                         B: in a book of poetry and classical music
      C: in a book of biographies of classical musicians D: in a newspaper article from 1791
37. What is the main idea of this passage?                    
      A: Mozart composed more than 600 musical pieces during his life.
      B: Mozart was a very talented child and grew up to become one of the greatest composers.
      C: Mozart’s father and the family toured all the major centers in Western Europe.
      D: Mozart’s father taught both Mozart and his sister how to play music.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Early on the morning of 31 May 1928, at Oakland airfield near San Francisco, the four man squeezed into the cramped cabin of Southern Cross. They waved goodbye to the crowd, took off and head westwards over the sea.
Today, an air journey of 12000 kilometers attracts very little attention. But in 1928, the first flight across the Pacific was fraught with as much as danger and risk as the first flight to the Moon 40 years later.
Instruments for navigation and communication were often unreliable, the range of aircraft was severely limited and conditions for the crew were very uncomfortable. The crew of Southern Cross could not even speak to each other because of the noise from the engines. They had to communicate with scribbled notes! Morse code and a short and long wave radio transmitter were their only links with the rest of the world. It took 27 hours for them to reach their first stop at Hawaii.
After refueling and a short rest they were airborne again, heading for Fiji, on the longest and most dangerous section of the flight. Fiji was 5000 kilometers away and Southern Cross carried fuel for no more than 5760 kilometers! There was little margin for navigating errors. For most of the distance there were no weather forecast available. No one had flown across the Pacific south of Honolulu before. It took them 33 hours, much of the time through horrible weather.
Ulm and Smithy took turns at the controls but Smithy did most of the flying and Ulm kept the log. By the time they landed in Fiji – on a makeshift airfield – they were exhausted. They needed two days rest before beginning the last section of their flight. It was to prove the most difficult of all. Wild storms battered and tore at the Southern Cross. Most of the time poor visibility forced them to fly purely by instruments. There was no other way of knowing whether the aircraft was flying straight and level, climbing, or diving into the sea. And one of the compasses failed.
After 23 hours of anxious flying they were relieved to recognize the Australian coast south of Ballina. Smithy turned north and landed at Brisbane’s Eagle Farm airport to the cheers of 25000 people.
                                     (Source: Department of Education, Northern Territory Government, Australia)
38. Why is the Southern Cross written in italics in the passage?
        A: It is the name of an air journey.                           B: It is the name of a plane.
        C: It is the name of a navigator.                                D: It is the name of a flight.
39. “Today, an air journey of 12000 kilometers attracts very little attention.” What does this statement suggest about air journeys in the 1920s?
        A: Air travel was not very interesting.                     B: The media did not usually take much notice.
        C: Long distance flights were unusual.                    D: The crew could not contact the media.
40. How long was the flight from Hawaii to Fiji?
        A: 40 hours                  B: 33 hours                            C: 27 hours                            D: 23 hours
41. “…Southern Cross carried fuel for no more than 5760 kilometers!” This mean that…………….
        A: they would run out of fuel if they strayed off course                                     
        B: they could not reach the destination with such fuel
        C: the distance was too long and they need refueling
        D: they would have enough fuel for return when reaching Fiji
42. Why did the pilots have to rely on their instruments after leaving Fiji?
        A: They had no weather forecast.                            
        B: Their cabin was cramped and uncomfortable.
        C: Their communication equipment was not reliable.
        D: They could not see because of poor weather.
43. What happened during the flight to show that navigation and communication equipment was ‘unreliable’ in the 1920s?
        A: One of the compasses stopped working.
        B: The engines of the airplane were noisy.
        C: They could only connect with the world by the radio.
        D: The aircraft needed refueling before heading for Fiji.
44. The word “margin” in the passage is closest meaning to………………
        A. fuel                           B. effort                                 C. limit                                   D. communication
45. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
        A: The crew met a lot of difficulties during their first flight across the Pacific.
        B: The weather was not good when they flew from Hawaii to Fiji.
        C: They stopped twice to take on fuel during their flight across the Pacific.
        D: They landed on a makeshift airfield on the Australian south coast.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46. I will only work extra hours if I get paid at a higher rate.
        A. I will not work extra hours even if I get paid at a higher rate.
        B. Unless I get paid at a higher rate, I won’t work extra hours.
        C. Working extra hours means I won’t get paid at a higher rate.
        D. I get paid at a higher rate because I will work extra hours.
47. Mr. Khan remembered to take everything except his front door key.
        A. The only thing which Mr. Khan forgot was his front door key.
        B. Mr. Khan remembered to take everything including his front door key.
        C. The only thing that Mr. Khan remembered was his front door key.
        D. Except his front door key, Mr. Khan forgot everything.
48. Mrs. Gibson expressed her thanks for all the help she’d received.                    
        A. Mrs. Gibson stated that she was happy for all the help she’d received.
        B. Mrs. Gibson expressed she was surprised at all the help she’d received.
        C. Mrs. Gibson reported she was amused at all the help she’d received.
        D. Mrs. Gibson said that she was grateful for all the help she’d received.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
49. They finished one project. They started working on the next.
        A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
        B. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next.
        C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
        D. Not until did they start working on the next project then they finished one.
50. The proposal seemed like a good idea. The manager refused it.
        A. The manager refused the proposal though it seemed like a good idea.
        B. Since the proposal seemed like a good idea, the manager refused it.
        C. The manager didn’t like to proposal because it didn’t seem a good idea.
        D. The proposal didn’t seem like a good idea, so the manager didn’t accept it.
PRACTICE TEST 4
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. leader                          B. defeat                                C. measure                             D. creature
2. A. clothes                         B. exchanges                         C. shares                                D. behaves
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. discipline                    B. counterpart                       C. signature                           D. supportive
4. A. diversity                      B. academic                           C. effectiveness                    D. communicate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. You’ve heard they aren’t coming to the party,………………?
     A. are they                       B. haven’t you                      C. aren’t they                        D. have you
6. You………………You’ve made your point clearly enough already.
     A. needn’t continue       B. mustn’t continue             C. don’t have continue        D. won’t continue
7. Fortunately, the school’s new air-conditioning system………………when the first heat wave of the summer arrived.
     A. had installed              B. was being installed          C. had been installed           D. had been installing
8. Thomas Raven is a physicist………………on time and space has been translated into dozens of languages.
     A. who’s book                B. the book of whom           C. of who the book               D. whose the book
9. Trung accidentally broke the………………by stepping on it. He apologized to them for his carelessness.
     A. child’s toy                  B. child’s toys                       C. children’s toy                   D. children’s toys
10. The couple decided to………………a baby from the orphanage though they had two children of their own.
     A. nurture                        B. foster                                 C. feed                                    D. adopt
11. The photographer took a picture of the deer the moment it came into………………
     A. place                            B. sight                                   C. light                                   D. scene
12. The first week of classes at university is a little………………because so many students get lost, change classes or go to the wrong place.
     A. chaotic                        B. disarrange                         C. notorious                          D. uncontrolled
13. Tom went to the dentist’s to have his decayed tooth………………As he couldn’t stand the toothache.
     A. extorted                      B. destroyed                          C. relieved                             D. extracted
14. The program is expected to increased the………………and productivity of the local car-producing industry.
     A. competitive                B. competition                      C. compositeness                 D. competitor
15. They have………………a large sum of money for their daughter’s overseas university education.
     A. set aside                      B. wiped out                          C. sent back                           D. left behind
16. The teacher reminded all of us to………………our homework the following day.
     A. keep up                       B. hand in                              C. give over                           D. turn on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
17. Mark: “ Can you give me a hand?” John: “………………”
     A. Sorry. My hands are dirty.                                       B. Why? I’m busy now
     C. I’d like a cup of tea                                                   D. I’d be glad to
18. Trang: “What is the public transportation like near your apartment?” Laura: “…………………”
     A. There’s a bus stop within walking distance.      B. I cycle to school with my friends everyday.
     C. I like the public transportation very much.        D. We go by bus on Monday and by tram on Friday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. He went through much hardship before he became a successful businessman.
      A. created                       B. met                                     C. accepted                            D. endured
20. She looks very familiar to me. I’m quite definite I’ve seen her before.
      A. fortunate                   B. doubtful                            C. certain                               D. relieved
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. One by one the old buildings in the city have been constructed and replaced with new tower blocks. A. repaired                     B. demolished                       C. improved                          D. dissolved
22. If you’re reluctant to make healthy food choices, your weight will continue to increase.
      A. fortunate                   B. sorry                                  C. happy                                D. willing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
23. Many environmentalists (A) fear that the earth (B) will run out essential (C) natural resources before (D) the middle of this century.
24. We are studying (A) for the Maths test since August (B) and we still have (C) a lot to revise. (D)
25. Human infants are not (A) usually able to (B) walk by selves (C) until they reach (D) eleven or twelve months of age.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In June 1976, an airliner was making a flight from France. After making a (26)…………….in Greece, it took off again with over two hundred passengers. Unfortunately, a few of them were terrorists. As soon as they were in the air, the terrorists hijacked the aircraft. Threatening the (27)…………….and passengers with guns, they forced the pilot to change the course.
The airline landed in an airport in Uganda and the passengers were (28)…………….Hostage in one of the airport buildings. The terrorists demanded the release of their fellow terrorists from prisons and (29)…………….to kill the hostages if their demands were not met.
A rescue operation was launched. Specially trained commandoes were flown in. They took the terrorists completely by (30)…………….and overpowered them easily. They released the hostages, escorted them to the aircraft and flew them back to safety.
(Source: Jazz up vocabulary 6 – Marilyn Tan – SAP)
26. A. stopover                    B. break                                 C. recess                                D. turn
27. A. band                          B. team                                   C. gang                                   D. Crew
28. A. Made                         B. held                                    C. turned                                D. changed
29. A. considered                B. decided                             C. threatened                         D. mentioned
30. A. surprise                     B. alarm                                 C. shock                                 D. fright
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
CARNIVOROUS PLANTS
Carnivorous plants are meat-eaters. They grow in boggy places where the soil is not very good and the minerals they need in order to grow well are in short supply. The plants use their leaves to catch and kill insects which give them more of the necessary minerals. They have invented some amazing ways to spice up their diets.
Pitcher Plants
The pitcher plant’s leaves take the shape of deep containers where pools of water collect. Insects are attracted to the plant by its bright colouring, strong smell, or by nectar secreted around the rim of the pitcher. But they often lose their footing on the slippery and fall into the water and down. They gradually dissolve into a kind of insect broth which the plant digests.
Sundews
Sundews have bright red leaves covered with hairs which produce a sweet sticky liquid. When an insect lands its feet getstuck to some of the hairs on the leaf. The nearby hairs bend toward the insect, surround it and suffocate it so that it can be digested.
Butterworts
The glistening golden leaves of the butterwort are a deadly glue trap. They produce a sticky substance which traps the insects when they land. But no matter how hard they struggle, the leaf edges curl inwards and the butterwort begins its lunch!
Venus Flytraps The leaves of the Venus Flytraps have a hinge right down the central vein and long sharp teeth along the edges. They have special hairs that are sensitive to the slightest pressure. When an insect lands on a leaf and touches at least two of these hairs- SNAP! The leaf closes on the insect in less than a second. When it has captured something, the trap stays closed for about a week, while the plant slowly digests its victim with its digestive juices. When it opens again, nothing is left of the unlucky insect but its skeleton.
(Source: https://education.nt..gov.au.literacy-practice-test)
31. The author’s main purpose for writing this passage was to………………
      A. help people to identify carnivorous plants. B. explain how carnivorous plants catch their prey. C. describe the dangers of carnivorous plants D. explain how the Venus Flytrap catches its prey.
32. Carnivorous plants spice up their diets to make them more………………
      A. interesting                 B. exciting                             C. nutritious                          D. amazing
33. The pitcher plant uses its lid to………………
      A. stop insects from escaping                                     B. keep it from overflowing with water
      C. keep insects out                                                       D. hide the smell of the rotting insects.
34. The pitcher plant is named after a container called a pitcher because its leaves………………
      A. catch insects             B. have lid                             C. collect water                     D. secrete nectar
35. The butterwort and sundew both have leaves which are………………
      A. colourful and produce a sticky liquid                  B. red and have sticky hairs to catch their prey C. golden and produce a sticky liquid              D. colourful curl up over their prey
36. Which plant has leaves which are joined to allow them to fold up?
      A. Pitcher plant             B. Sundew                             C. butterwort                         D. Venus Flytrap
37. Which of the following is NOT true according to the information from the passage?
      A. Sundews and butterworts move their leaves in order to trap insects.
      B. The Venus flytrap digest its trapped insects with its digestive juices.
      C. The insects caught by the pitcher plant break down in the liquid.
      D. Carnivorous plants usually grow in places where the soil is poor.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The Mayan civilization was the oldest of the three largest civilizations in South and Central America. The empire lasted from about 300 A.D to 900 A.D.
While Europeans were in the midst of the Dark Ages, Mayans never stopped learning. They tried out new farming methods. They rotated their crops so the soil would last longer. They only farmed crops on the same field once every three years or so. Turkeys and ducks were tamed and kept on Mayan farms. That way, Mayans wouldn’t have to worry about hunting or trapping food.
The Mayans also learn to make paper out of the fig trees They had an advanced writing system. In their system. In their system, word-pictures stood for different syllables and ideas. Mayan writing did much more than that just record dates and information. The writing told stories about life. The Mayans are also good mathematicians. They came up with the principle of “0” as a number. They also studied the stars and had very advanced calendars. The Mayan farming calendar was based on the movement of the sun and the stars. It dad 365 days just like ours!
The Mayan civilization was very organized. Each city had a king and everyone had his position, from stonecutter to nobleman. You were born into your position in life. If your father was a stonecutter, you would cut stone, too. Nobles lived in beautiful houses. Their architecture was splendid. White limestone covered the walls and the floors. The inside walls were painted with murals.
Most Mayans were peasants farmers. They farmed corn and beans. They also grew cacao, the basis of chocolate. The first hot chocolate actually came from the Mayans! They made their hot chocolate by mixing water, cacao ( same as cocoa), and chili peppers. In the Mayan empire, chocolate wasn’t just a food or drink. Cacao beans were used as currency, or money. People would trade their goods for cacao beans!
No one knows exactly why the Mayan civilization came to an end. By the time Europeans arrived in the New World, the civilization gad already crumbled. Whatever happened, the Mayan empire was long past its peak by the time Europeans arrived. In its height, the empire was active and full of the spirit of learning that many countries in Europe experienced hundreds of years later.
(Source: http://www/readworks.org/passages)
38. The Mayans discovered or invented all of the following EXCEPT……………
      A. chocolate                  B. rotating crops                   C. the wheel                D. the use of number “0”
39. This passage mostly describes the Mayans in term of……………
      A. their arts and festivals                                            B. why their civilization ended
      C. how they assigned jobs                                           D. what they did and accomplished
40. Which of these Mayan accomplishments probably had the biggest impact on building their civilization?
      A. farming and raising animals                                   B. making chocolate
      C. writing with word-pictures                                     D. painting murals
41. The word “splendid” in the passage means……………
      A. terrible, ugly             B. simple, basic            C. expensive, costly          D. wonderful, magnificent
42. The main idea of this passage is……………
      A. the Mayans lived exactly like Europeans did at the time.
      B. the Mayans were an advanced civilization for their time.
      C. the Mayans were unaware of modern science and technology.
      D. the Mayans disappeared and left no history behind.
43. What did the Mayans use as a guide while creating their complex calendars?
      A. the limestone covered the walls and the floors B. the farming methods
      C. the corn, beans and cacao.                                     D. the movement of the sun and the stars.
44. Which of the following information means Mayan civilization was “very organized”?
      A. Most Mayans were peasant farmers.                    B. They invented the first hot chocolate
      C. Everyone was assigned his job.                             D. The empire was full of the spirit of learning
45. Which of the following statement is NOT true according to the passage?
      A. The Mayans used word-pictured only to record dates.
      B. The Mayans raised ducks and turkeys for food.
      C. Cacao beans were used as currency in the Mayan empire.
      D. The disappearance of Mayan civilization is still a secret.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46. If they had arrived a moment later, they would have missed the start of the film.
A. They arrive just in time for the start of the film.
B. They missed the start of the film because they arrived late.
C. They didn’t arrive early enough for the start of the film.
D. They wouldn’t have missed the start of the film if they had arrived earlier.
47. Thanh suggested going to the park the following Sunday.
A. “Why don’t you go to the park Sunday?” Thanh said.
B. “Shall I go to the park next Sunday?” Thanh said.
C. “Let us go to the park next Sunday?” Thanh said
D. “How about going to the park next Sunday?” Thanh said
48. The firemen had to break the door down.
      A. The firemen shouldn’t have broken                    
      B. It was necessary for the firemen to break the door down.
      C. Breaking the door down required the help of the firemen. 
      D. It was against the law that the firemen broke the door.                                    
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is different in meaning to each of the following questions.
49. Kevin put a cup fence so that people didn’t walk on his garden.
      A. In order to stop people from walking on his garden, Kavin put a fence.
      B. Kevin put up a fence because he didn’t want people to walk on his garden.
      C. So as to encourage people to walk on his garden, Kevin put up a fence.
      D. Kevin put up a fence to prevent people from walking on his fence.
50. Emily couldn’t move the table even though she tried hard.
      A. Emily couldn’t move the table as she didn’t tried hard.
      B. Emily tried hard, but she couldn’t move the table.
      C. Try as hard as she might, Emily couldn’t move the table.
D. Emily couldn’t move the table despite her effort. 

PRACTICE TEST 5
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. strategy                       B. gender                               C. invest                                 D. effective
2. A. devotion                      B. information _                   C. hesitation                          D. suggestion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. solar                             B. cycle                                  C. approach                           D. costly
4. A. diversity                      B. biography                         C. curriculum                        D. intervention
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. Look! The yard is wet. It………………last night.
     A. had to rain                  B. ought to rain                     C. must have rained             D. should have rained
6. ………………matter and energy can be converted into one another.
     A. in which                      B. that                                     C. what                                   D. there are
7. The more you study during the semester, ………………the week before exams.
     A. the less you have to study                                       B. you have to study the less
     C. the least you have to study                                      D. the study less you have
8. My mother………………strawberries for years but she has never had such a good crop before.
     A. is growing                   B. has been growing             C. grew                                   D. had grown
9. All her hard work paid………………in the end and she’s now very successful.
     A. up                                 B. out                                      C. off                                      D. back
10. The national………………of the Philippines is Christianity.
     A. culture                         B. nationality                        C. religion                              D. tradition
11. The driver………………his greatest ambition by winning the support of local residents.
     A. obtained                      B. confirmed                         C. realized                             D. completed
12. The construction of the new road is………………winning the support of local residents.
     A. thanks to                     B. prior to                              C. dependent on                   D. responsible to
13. Experiments related to the sense of smell are more easily………………than those related to perception of color.
     A. carried on                   B. dealt with                          C. put up                                D. set up
14. Language, culture and personality may be considered independently of each other in thought, but they are………………in fact.
     A. separating                   B. separated                          C. separable                          D. inseparable
15. Insolence often leads to an unhappy situation, especially in the classroom, because it……………… trust.
     A. bursts into                  B. breaks down                     C. gives away                        D. calls off
16. Anne was taken………………when the doorbell rang, as she wasn’t expecting anyone.
     A. by chance                   B. by accident                       C. by mistake                        D. by surprise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
17. – “Hi, Mark. Sorry I’m a bit late. You haven’t been here long, have you?”
      – “………………”
      A. That’s news to me.                                                   B. Since 7 o’clock, actually.          
      C. I’m on the way now.                                                D. I’ll be there in an hour.
18. – “Interviewer: “………………”
      – Interviewee: “Thank you”
      A. Sit yourself, OK?        B. Be seated, please          C. Seat down, will you?       D. Please take a sit
                                                                                                                                                              
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. It turns out that some fossil can be extracted from these sediments by putting the rocks in an acid bath.
      A. removed                    B. resulted                             C. differed                             D. produced
20. I knew exactly what he wanted me to do: he didn’t need to spell it out for me.
      A. tell me how to write it down                                  B. help me to do
      C. explain it any further                                              D. plan my life for me
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. I don’t know why you get so upset about something that is utterly trivial. Don’t make a mountain out of a molehill.
      A. terrible                       B. significant                         C. strange                               D. successful
22. The reporter insisted that the letter he used was authentic. He said that he had shown it to many experts before he used it in his story.
      A. genuine, or real        B. unreliable, or fake           C. full of facts           D. very long-established
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
23. The Red River, so named (A) because of (B) the red-colored sediment it carries, it is (C) one of the main branches (D) of the Mississippi.
24. A number of large (A) insurance companies has (B) their headquarters (C) in the capital city (D).
25. A lot of (A) athletic and non-athletic (B) extracurricular activities are available in (C) Vietnamese high-schools, either public and private. (D)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The capacity  humans have to transfer concepts, ideas and notions through speech and writing is unrivaled in known species. Unlike the call systems of other primates that are closed, human language is (26)……………open, and gains variety in different situations. The human language has the quality of displacement, using words to represent things and happenings (27)……………are not presently or locally occurring, but elsewhere or at a different time. In this way data networks are important to the continuing (28)……………of language. The faculty of speech is a defining feature of humanity, possibly predating phylogenetic separation of the modern population. Language is central to the communication between humans, as well as being central to the sense of identity that (29)……………nations, cultures and ethnic groups. The invention of writing systems at least 5,000 years ago allowed the preservation of language on material objects, and was a (30)……………step in cultural evolution. The science of linguistics describes the structure of language and the relationship between languages. There are approximately 6,000 different languages currently in use, including sign languages, and many thousands more that are considered extinct.
(Source: Human – Google Friend Connect)
26. A. very much                B. little more                         C. more than                          D. far more
27. A. that                            B. which                                 C. when                                  D. where
28. A. progress                    B. achievement                     C. development                    D. advance
29. A. links                          B. unites                                 C. connects                            D. liberates
30. A. major                         B. main                                   C. central                               D. leading
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
On average, American kids ages 3 to 12 spent 29 hours a week in school, eight hours more than they did in 1981. They also did more household work and participated in more of such organized activities as soccer and ballet. Involvement in sports, in particular, rose almost 50% from 1981 to 1997: boys now spend an average of four hours a week playing sports; girls log hall that time. All in all, however, children's leisure time dropped from 40% of the day in 1981 to 25%.
"Children are affected by the same time crunch that affects their parents," says Sandra Hofferth, who headed the recent study of children's timetable. A chief reason, she says, is that more mothers are working outside the home. (Nevertheless, children in both double-income and "male breadwinner" households spent comparable amounts of time interacting with their parents, 19 hours and 22 hours respectively. In contrast, children spent only 9 hours with their single mothers.)
All work and no play could make for some very messed-up kids. "Play is the most powerful way a child explores the world and learns about himself," says T. Berry Brazelton, professor at Harvard Medical School. Unstructured play encourages independent thinking and allows the young to negotiate their relationships with their peers, but kids ages 3 to 12 spent only 12 hours a week engaged in it.
The children sampled spent a quarter of their rapidly decreasing "free time" watching television. But that, believe it or not, was one of the findings parents might regard as good news. If they are spending less time in front of the TV set, however, kids aren't replacing it with reading. Despite efforts to get kids more interested in books, the children spent just over an hour a week reading. Let's face it, who's got the time?    
(Source: gzyy.cooco.net.cn/testdetail/171581)
31. The author is concerned about the fact that American kids are………………
      A: involved less and less in household work           B: spending more and more time watching TV
      C: engaged in more and more organized activities D: increasingly cared for by their working mothers
32. What does Sandra Hofferth mean by mentioning “the same time crunch?”
      A: Children have little time to play with their parents.
      B: Both parents and children suffer from lack of leisure time.
      C: Both parents and children have trouble managing their time.
      D: Children are not taken good care of by their working parents
33. According to the author, the reason given by Sandra Hofferth for the time crunch is………………
      A: quite convincing      B: partially true                    C: rather confusing              D: totally groundless
34. According to the author, a child develops better if he/she………………
      A: has plenty of time reading and studying             
      B: is free to interact with his/ her working parents
      C: is left to play with his/her peers in his/her own way                                        
      D: has more time taking part in school activities
35. The word “unstructured” in the passage probably means………………
      A: invaluable                 B: impractical                       C: not costly                          D: not organized
36. The word “they” in the passage refers to………………
      A: parents                      B: kids                                    C: efforts                               D: books
37. We can infer from the passage that………………
      A: most parents believe reading to be of benefit to children
      B: efforts to get kids interested in reading have been fruitful
      C: most children will turn to reading with TV sets switch off
      D: organized activities improve children’s intelligence
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The principal difference between urban growth in Europe and in the North American colonies was the slow evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In North America, they started as wilderness communities and developed to mature urbanism's in little more than a century.
In the early colonial days in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline, mostly in what are now New England and the Middle Atlantic states in the United States and in the lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets such as equipment) and many consumer goods were imported. Merchandising establishments were, accordingly, advantageously located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior settlements. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and as the colonies grew, these cities increased in importance.
This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as plantations, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic coastline. The local isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations were antagonistic to the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were located on navigable streams and each had a wharf accessible to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway.
When the United States became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single city as large as 50,000 inhabitants, but by 1820 it had a city of more than 100,000 people, and by 1880 it had recorded a city of over one million. It was not until after 1823, after the mechanization of the spinning and weaving industries, that cities started drawing young people away from farms. Such migration was particularly rapid following the Civil War (1861-1865).
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
38. What does the passage mainly discuss?
      A: Factors that slowed the growth of cities in Europe
      B: The evolution of cities in America
      C: Trade between North American and European cities
      D: The effects of the United States' independence on urban growth in New England
39. The word “accordingly” in the passage is closest meaning to……………..
      A: as usual                     B: in contrast                        C: to some degree                 D: for that reason
40. According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic coastline of North America due to……………..
      A: an abundance of natural resources                       B: financial support from colonial government
      C: proximity to parts of Europe                                 D: a favourable climate
41. Which of the following did the Atlantic coastline cities prepare for shipment to Europe during colonial times?             
      A: manufacturing equipment       B: capital goods       C: consumer goods         D: raw materials
42. According to the passage, all of the following aspects of the plantation system influenced the growth of southern cities EXCEPT ______.
      A: location of plantations                                          
      B: access of plantation owners to shipping
      C: relationships between plantation residents and city residents
      D: economic self-sufficiency of plantations
43. It can be inferred from the passage that, in comparison with northern cities, most southern cities were……………..
      A: more prosperous             B: smaller                C: less self-sufficient                 D: stronger
44. The word “recorded” in the passage is closet in meaning to……………..
      A: imagined                   B: discovered                        C: documented                     D: planned
45. The passage mentions the period following the Civil War (in the last sentence) because it was a time of……………..
      A: significant obstacles of industrial growth
      B: decreased dependence on foreign trade
      C: increased numbers of people leaving employment on farms
      D: increased migration from northern states to southern states
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46. Tom should have known better than to ask Dick to help him.
        A. It was wise of Tom to ask Dick to help him.
        B. Tom asked Dick to help him because he was better than anyone else.
        C. Tom should have asked Dick to help him.
        D. Tom asked Dick to help him, but it was foolish of him to do so.
47. For a cold, doctors often recommend that you rest and drink lots of fluids.
        A. The doctors recommend that you have cold soft drinks.
        B. Doctors would rather give advice about colors than about fluids.
        C. Rest and liquids are frequently advised for treatment of colds.
        D. You were told to come in out of the cold and rest.
48. “You shouldn’t sit up if I wanted to feel better,” the doctor said to me.
        A. The doctor ordered me to sit up if I wanted to feel better.
        B. The doctor advised me not to sit up until I felt better.
        C. The doctor told me that if I wanted to feel better, I should sit up.
        D. The doctor suggested I should sit up until I felt better.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of the sentences in the following questions.
49. I didn’t know that you were at home. I didn’t drop in.
      A. I didn’t know you were at home although I didn’t drop in.
      B. Not knowing that you were at home, I didn’t drop in.
      C. If I knew that you were at home, I would drop in.
      D. Not knowing that you were at home, but I still dropped in.
50. We spray pesticides and fertilizers, which are found dangerous, on our crops.
      A. We spray pesticides and fertilizers, which are found dangerous, on our crops.
      B. The pesticides and fertilizers we spray on our crops are to be found dangerous.
      C. We spray pesticides and fertilizers on our crops, which is found dangerous.
      D. Some of the pesticides and fertilizers we spray on our crops are found dangerous. 
PRACTICE TEST 6
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. forget                           B. sporting                             C. perform                             D. supportive
2. A. facial                           B. economic                          C. oceanic                              D. beneficial
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. watercraft                   B. jet-skiing                           C. committee                         D. paralyze
4. A. gymnasium                 B. fertilizer                            C. competitive                      D. peninsula
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. ……………..seasonal rainfall, especially in regions near the tropics, is winds that blow in at opposite direction in winter than in summer.
      A. Causing                     B. that cause                          C. To cause                            D. What causes
6. Only when air and water seep through its outer coat……………..
      A. does a seed germinate                                             B. to the germination of a seed 
C. a seed germinates                                                     D. for a seed to germinate 
7. Sam’s on his way, so make him a coffee……………..he arrives.
      A. if                                 B. until                                   C. while                                  D. when
8. The explosion was of such……………..that it was heard five miles away.
      A. intensiveness            B. intensity                            C. intense                               D. intensification
9. – “Where’s Phong?”
     – “I’m not sure. He……………..lunch.”
     A. has to have                 B. must have                         C. might be having               D. charge
10. You’ll get a better……………..of exchange at another bank.
     A. rate                              B. value                                  C. worth                                 D. charge
11. Paul Samuelson revolutionized……………..by presenting his students with the most advanced economic thinking at an introductory level.
     A. to teach economics                                                   B. the teaching of economics  
     C. teaching that economics is                                       D. economics is taught
12. Is there anyone who……………..the plan put forward by the committee?
     A. differs                         B. disagrees                           C. objects                               D. opposes
13. He would win the race if he……………..his brother's example and trained harder.
A. repeated                      B. followed                            C. answered                           D. took
14. OXFAM……………..the Oxford Committee for Famine Relief.
     A. refers to                      B. works for                          C. applies to                          D. stands for 
15. British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as ……………..
     A. cats and dogs             B. salt and pepper                C. chalk and cheese             D. here and there
16. She……………..when she heard the good news.
     A. let down                      B. cheered up                        C. got over                             D. gave up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
17. – “Do you mind if I open the window?”
      – “……………..”
      A. Yes, it’s my pleasure.         B. No, I don’t             C. No, I hope not.                 D. Yes, I do
18. – “Please accept my apology for disturbing you.”
      – “……………..”
      A. I’m really sorry, too.                                               B. That’s all right, don’t worry.
      C. No, I don’t accept that.                                            D. Yes, why don’t I?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. Scientists warn about the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals if we don’t take urgent action to save them.
      A. absolute                     B. imminent                           C. formidable                        D. improbable
20. I want you to weigh his words, carefully. He seems sincere and presents his arguments well. There is, however, something that doesn't quite ring true about the candidate.
      A: measure the mass        B: put pressure on a scale          C: think about            D: be important
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. Helen’s attitude toward dealing with criminals has changed over the years. She now believes that some crimes are so heinous that those responsible should be shown no mercy.
      A: guilty                         B: terrible                              C: impressive                        D: wonderful
22. Don’t feel stupid. Yes, you thought this worthless replica was a valuable work of art. But it even fooled a lot of experts. It certainly looked like the real thing.
      A: a dishonest act         B: something genuine          C: something valuable         D: an imitation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
23. In a restaurant, if we (A) want to call the waiter, we can raise our hand and wave it (B) slight to signal (C) that we need assistance. (D)
24. While (A) working as a travel agency (B) my elder brother specialized in (C) arranging tour of (D) the Mekong Delta for foreign tourists.
25. Irrigation often studied (A) together with drainage, which (B) is the natural or artificial removal (C) of the surface and sub-surface water from a given (D) area.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
26. My cousin shows a desire to put aside the status of the school child.
      A. The status of the school child makes my cousin happy.
      B. My cousin is determined to put up with the other school children.               
      C. My cousin decides to play down the status of the school child.
      D. My cousin doesn’t want to be a school child any more.
27. It appears that the harvest workers think they were maltreated.
      A. The harvest workers seem to think they were maltreated.
      B. The harvest workers claim to have been maltreated.
      C. It is thought that the harvest workers were maltreated.
      D. It appears that the harvest workers think of being maltreated.
28. A simplified edition is easier to read than the original: it’s shorter.
      A. A simplified edition which is shorter than the original is easier to read.
      B. A simplified edition, which is shorter than the original, is easier to read.
      C. The original, which is shorter, is easier to read than a simplified edition.
      D. The original is longer than a simplified edition, and it is difficult to read.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
29. The flood may rise higher. We have to move upstairs.
      A. We’ll have to move upstairs soon if the flood rises any higher.
      B. Unless the flood rises any higher we won’t have to move upstairs.
      C. If we don’t move upstairs, the flood may rise higher.
      D. We have to move upstairs in case the flood rises any higher.
30. People live together in one place. They form a community.
      A. When people form a community, they live together in one place.
      B. In order to live together in one place, people form a community.
      C. People form a community when living together in one place.
      D. Forming a community, people live together in one place.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
After a busy day of work and play, the body needs to rest. Sleep is necessary for good health. During this time, the body recovers from the (31)……………..of the previous day. The rest that you get while sleeping enables your body to prepare itself for the next day.
There are four levels of sleep, each being a little (32)……………..than the one before. As you sleep, your muscles relax little by little. Your heart beats more slowly, and your brain slows down. After you (33)……………..the fourth level, your body shifts back and forth from one level of sleep to the other.
Although your mind slows down, from time to time you will dream. Scientists who study sleep state that when dreaming (34)…………….., your eyeballs begin to move more quickly. This stage of sleep is called REM, which stands for Rapid Eye Movement.
If you have trouble falling asleep, some people recommend breathing very deeply. Other people believe that drinking warm milk will help make you (35)
……………..There is also an old suggestion that counting sheep will put you to sleep!
31 A acts                              B actions                                C activities                            D activeness
32 A deeper                         B lighter                                 C shorter                                D higher
33 A reach                           B arrive                                  C attain                                  D achieve
34 A exists                           B appears                               C survives                             D occurs
35 A tired                             B drowsy                               C dizzy                                   D awake
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
When blood is sent to the lungs by the heart, it has come back from the cells in the rest of the body. So the blood that goes into the wall of an air sac contains much dissolved carbon dioxide but very little oxygen. At the same time, the air that goes into the air sac contains much oxygen but very little carbon dioxide.  
You have learned that dissolved materials always diffuse from where there is more of them to where there is less. Oxygen from the air dissolves in the moisture on the lining of the air sac and diffuses through the lining into the blood. Meanwhile, carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood into the air sac. The blood then flows from the lungs back to the heart, which sends it out to all other parts of the body.
Soon after air goes into an air sac, it gives up some of its oxygen and takes in some carbon dioxide from the blood. To keep diffusion going as it should, this carbon dioxide must be gotten rid of. Breathing, which is caused by movements of the chest, forces the used air out of the air sacs in your lungs and brings in fresh air.
Ordinarily, you breathe about twenty-two times a minute. Of course, you breathe faster when you are exercising and slower when you are resting. Fresh air is brought into your lungs when you breathe in, or inhale, while used air is forced out of your lungs when you breathe out, or exhale.
(Source: www.cet4v.com/exam/9048.asp)
36. According to the passage, the blood going into the wall of an air sac contains……………
      A: much carbon dioxide       B: a lot of oxygen        C: no fresh air       D: very much moisture
37. In the respiratory process, only one of the following actions takes places; it is……………
      A: the diffusion of blood through capillary walls into air sacs
      B: the diffusion of carbon dioxide through capillary and air sac walls into the blood
      C: the diffusion of oxygen through capillary and air sac walls into the blood
      D: the exchange of nitrogen within air sacs
38. The words “which” in the passage refers to……………
      A: the blood                   B: the lungs                           C: the hearts                          D: the body
39. The number of times per minute that you breath is……………
      A: independent of your rate of exercise                   B: fixed at twenty-two times per minute
      C: influenced by your age and sex                            D: controlled automatically by the body
40. The process by which carbon dioxide and oxygen are transferred does not depend on……………
      A: the presence of nitrogen in blood                         B: breathing muscles
      C: the flow of blood                                                     D: the moisture in the air sac linings
41. The author’s tone in this passage can best described as……………
      A: admirable                  B: objective                           C: personal                            D: ironical
42. Which of the following is the opposite of the word “inhale” in the last sentence?
      A: breath out                 B: breath in                           C: diffuse                               D: exchange
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The sculptural legacy that the new United States inherited from its colonial predecessors was far from a rich one, and in fact, in 1776 sculpture as an art form was still in the hand of artisans and craftspeople. Stone carvers engraved their motifs of skulls and crossbones and other religious icons of death into the gray slabs that we still see standing today in old burial grounds. Some skilled craftspeople made intricately carved wooden ornamentations for furniture or architectural decorations, while others caved wooden shop signs and ships' figureheads. Although they often achieved expression and formal excellence in their generally primitive style, they remained artisans skilled in the craft of carving and constituted a group distinct from what we normally think of as "sculptors" in today's use of the word.
On the rare occasion when a fine piece of sculpture was desired, Americans turned to foreign sculptors, as in the 1770's when the cities of New York and Charleston, South Carolina, commissioned the Englishman Joseph Wilton to make marble statues of William Pitt. Wilton also made a lead equestrian image of King George III that was created in New York in 1770 and torn down by zealous patriots six years later. A few marble memorials with carved busts, urns, or other decorations were produced in England and brought to the colonies to be set in the walls of churches - as in King's Chapel in Boston. But sculpture as a high art, practiced by artists who knew both the artistic theory of their Renaissance-Baroque-Rococo predecessors and the various technical procedures of modeling, casting, and carving rich three-dimensional forms, was not known among Americans in 1776. Indeed, for many years thereafter, the United States had two groups from which to choose - either the local craftspeople or the imported talent of European sculptors.
The eighteenth century was not one in which powered sculptural conceptions were developed. Add to this the timidity with which unschooled artisans - originally trained as stonemasons, carpenters, or cabinetmakers - attacked the medium from which they sculpture made in the United States in the late eighteenth century.
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
43. What is the main idea of the passage?
        A: There was great demand for the work of eighteenth-century artisans.
        B: Skilled sculptors did not exist in the US in the 1770’s.
        C: Many foreign sculptors worked in the US after 1776.
        D: American sculptors were hampered by a lack of tools and materials.
44. It is stated in the first paragraph that the sculptural legacy that the new United States had from colonial times was…………......
        A: not great                  B: very rich                           C: plentiful                            D: not countable
45. The words “motifs” in the passage is closest in meaning to…………......
        A: tools                         B: prints                                 C: signatures                         D: designs
46. The work of which of the following could be seen in burial ground?
        A: European sculptors                                                           B: carpenters              C: stone carves                                       D: cabinetmarkers
47. The word “they” in the passage refers to…………......
        A: skilled craftspeople                                               B: wooden ornamentations
        C: architectural decorations                                      D: wooden shop signs
48. Why does the author mention Joseph Wilton in paragraph 2?
        A: He was an English sculptor who did work in the United States.                   
        B: He was well known for his wood carvings.
        C: He produced sculpture for churches.
        D: He settled in the US in 1776.
49. What can be inferred about the importation of marble memorials from England?
        A: Such sculpture was expensive to produce locally than to import.
        B: Such sculpture was not available in the US.
        C: Such sculpture was as prestigious as those made locally.
        D: The materials found abroad were superior.
50. How did the work of American carvers in 1776 differ from that of contemporary sculptors?
        A: It was less time-consuming                                  B: It was more dangerous.
        C: It was more expensive.                                          D: It was less refined.
PRACTICE TEST 7
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. ancient                        B. vertical                              C. compose                            D. eradicate
2. A. fauna                           B. faucet                                C. draught                              D. daunting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. canoeing                     B. integrate                            C. enterprise                          D. certify
4. A. society                         B. elaborate                           C. incredible                         D. dedicated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. Given the present economic situation, it……………be best to wait before making further wage demands.
     A. needed                        B. ought                                 C. might                                 D. should
6. ……………off Hawaiian coastline are living, others are dead.
     A. While some types of coral reefs                             B. Because some types of coral reefs
     C. There are many types of coral reefs                       D. Of the coral reefs
7. Small box and diphtheria in Britain many years, ……………cancer, AIDS and heart disease are now predominant.
A. because                       B. even though                      C. in case                               D. whereas
8. All flights……………because of the snowstorm, because of the snowstorm, many passengers could do nothing but take the train .
A. had been canceled       B. have been canceled
C. having been canceled      D. being canceled
9. If Paul had received six more votes in the last election, he……………our chairman now.
     A. must have been             B. would be                        C. were                                   D. would have been
10. Stressful environments lead to unhealthy behaviors such as poor eating habits, which……………increase the risk of heart disease.
     A. in turn                         B. in return                            C. by chance                         D. by turns
11. Although we had told them not to keep us waiting, they made no……………to speed up deliveries.
     A. trial                              B. attempt                              C. action                                D. progress
12. His ambition is without limits. He has a(n) ……………ambition.
     A. limited                         B. unlimiting                         C. limitable                            D. illimitable
13. Machines used to…………… tree crops, such as cherries and almonds, can be classified either as shakers or as pickup machines.
     A. collect                         B. gain                                    C. plough                               D. harvest
14. We’re going to freeze out here if you don’t let us…………… the bus.
     A. get on                          B. take off                              C. go into                               D. come up
15. The new teacher was…………… to the needs of all the children in her care.
     A. attentive                      B. observant                          C. earnest                               D. careful
16. I…………… these old photos when I was tidying the closet.                              
     A. bumped into               B. looked after                      C. came across                      D. went into
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
17. – “Mr. Brown” “It’s very nice of you to meet me here.”
      – Tom: “………………”
      A. That’s right, sir.        B. Yes, certainly, sir.       C. You’re right, sir.       D. It’s my pleasure, sir.
18. – Lan: “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?
      – Trung: “………………”
      A. Yes, I would.             B. Not at all.                          C. What a pity!                     D. My Gosh!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. People of diverse backgrounds now go to different places for pleasure, business or education,
      A. distinctive                 B. different                            C. isolated                             D. distant
20. It is helpful for salesmen to develop a good rapport with their customers in order to gain their trust.
      A. sympathy                  B. business                            C. conversation                    D. relationship
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. Some people think their abilities have limitations, but with encouragement they can perform much better than expected.
      A. possibilities              B. certainties                         C. boundaries                        D. advantages          
22. The primary challenge for cancer surgeons is to completely excise the tumor without harming healthy tissue.
      A. treat                            B. remove                              C. keep                                   D. change
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
23. Almost (A) poetry is more (B) enjoyable (C) when it is (D) read aloud.
24. Alike (A) other forms of energy, natural gas may be used (B) to heat (C) homes, cook food, and even run (D) automobiles.
25. The government recommends that (A) all expectant (B) women will not only refrain (C) from smoking but also avoid places (D) where other people smoke.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Many animals in the wild are suspicious and fearful of human beings. Many animals would take escape instantly (26)…………… a human approaches. Man, however, soon discovered that some animals can be tamed or domesticated. Unlike animals in the wild, these animals would (27)…………… man to come close to them. They would even allow their owners to stroke or pet them.
In the early times man would domesticate animals by setting traps to catch their young. A young animal is (28)…………… easily domesticated than an adult one. From young, the animal learns to trust and obey its owner.
Many different kind of animals have been domesticated. Some common examples are animals like horses, elephants, chickens and pigs. The dog, which is also (29)…………… as ‘man’s best friend’, is one of the first animals to have been domesticated is the pig. In England long ago, the pig was a wild animals. It was a ferocious and aggressive (30)……………which was not easily captured. Yet nowadays, the domesticated pig is no longer the lean and tough creature it used to be!
(Source: englishdaily625.com)
26. A. where                        B. when                                  C. whether                             D. while
27. A. permit                        B. tolerate                              C. allow                                  D. let
28. A. far more                    B. so much                             C. lots more                           D. quite so
29. A. considered                B. indentified                        C. recognized                        D. known
30. A. beast                          B. being                                  C. individual                         D. creature
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Ambient divers are, unlike divers who go underwater in submersible vehicles or pressure resistant suits, exposed to the pressure and the temperature of the surrounding (ambient) water. Or all types of diving, the oldest and simplest is free diving. Free divers may use no equipment at all, but most use a face mask, foot fins, and snorkel. Under the surface, free divers must hold their breath. Most free divers can only descend 30 to 40 feet, but some skilled divers can go as deep as 100 feet.
Scuba diving provides greater range than free diving. The word scuba stands for self-contained underwater breathing apparatus. Scuba divers wear metal tanks with compressed air or other breathing gases. When using open-circuit equipment, and Scuba diver simply breathes air from the tank through a hose and releases the exhaled air into the water. A closed-circuit breathing device, also called a rebreather, filters out carbon dioxide and other harmful gases and automatically adds oxygen. This enables the diver to breathe the same air over and over. In the surface-supplied diving, divers wear helmets and waterproof canvas suits. Today, sophisticated plastic helmets have replaced the heavy copper helmets used in the past. These divers get their air from hose connected to compressors on a boat. Surface-supplied divers can go deeper than any other type of ambient diver.
(Source: Peterson’s TOEFL success – Bruce Rogers – Thompson Peterson)  
31. Ambient dives are ones who………………
      A: can descend to extreme depths                             B: use submersible vehicles
      C: use no equipment                                                    D: are exposed to the surrounding water
32. According to the passage. A free diver may use any of the following EXCEPT………………
      A: a rebreather              B: a snorkel                           C: foot fins                            D: a mask
33. What does the word “descend” in the passage probably mean?
      A: move to a lower level                                             B: climb to a higher place  
      C: swim on the river bed                                             D: go up and down slowly
34. According to the passage, the maximum depth for free divers is around………………
      A: 40 feet                       B: 100 feet                             C: 200 feet                             D: 1000 feet
35. The word “apparatus” in the passage is closet in meaning to………………
      A: clothes                       B: gases                                  C: mask                                  D: equipment
36. When using closed-circuit devices, divers………………
      A: exhale air into the water                                         B: hold their breath
      C: breath the same air over and over                         D: receive air from the surface
37. What are the helmets that surface-supplied divers use today made from according to the passage?
      A: glass                           B: copper                               C: plastic                               D: canvas
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
One question that is being debated these days is whether or not genetic engineering is a good thing. We hear this term “genetic engineering” with increasing frequency these days. For those readers who may not be sure of its meaning, some definitions follow. When we speak of genes, we are referring to chemical substances in the cells of all-living things that establish an organism’s characteristics. Genetic engineering is the changing of certain genes, usually to improve an organism in some way. In recent years, for example, certain genes have been placed in tomato plants to make tomatoes taste better and keep them fresh in supermarkets for a longer time. Cows have been treated with a growth hormone that makes dairy cattle give more milk and reduces the amount of fat in the meat of beef cattle. These sound like positive things, don’t they? After all, many people say, the technology exists to improve our lives.
But there are plenty of people around who oppose genetic engineering. Why? Two specific objections come to mind. One is that the balance of nature might be upset. Suppose, for example, that scientists are able to genetically engineer certain plants so that insects will not eat them. This will protect the plants, but the insects will be deprived of a food supply — and other animals that depend on those insects for food will lose their food supply, too. The other objection is a moral question. Is it acceptable or right for us to change the makeup of living things? 
Supporters of genetic engineering say the benefits outweigh the dangers. Look at all the improvements that can be made in plants raised for food, they say. Because of genetic engineering, plants that produce more fruits and vegetables and resist disease can be grown. In a world where more and more food will be needed in the future, this is a benefit. The medical advances provided by genetic engineering, say the supporters, are even more impressive. Consider cancer, for example. If genetic engineering can provide a way to cure or prevent this disease, shouldn’t it be used? And if genetic engineering can be used to kill the virus that causes AIDS, shouldn’t it be permitted? 
Opponents of genetic engineering say it should be stopped, or at least limited. Proponents of genetic engineering say it should be promoted and expanded. The debate goes on.
(Source: slideplayer.com/slide/5796128/)       
38. What is TRUE about genetic engineering, according to paragraph 1?
        A: It increases people’s age .                                     B: It improves fat in the meat.
        C: It changes genes’ parameters.                              D: it reduces the number of cells.
39. Genetic engineering is said to be aimed at……………….
        A: changing genes of plants and animals                B: placing new genes into plants
        C: establishing an organism’s characteristic          D: improving an organism in some way
40. The word “one” in the paragraph refers to……………….
        A: specific objection                B: mind                    C: balance of nature            D: example
41. It is stated in paragraph 2 that……………….
        A: scientists control the number of insects             B: ecosystems should be counter balanced
        C: insects protect the plants from extinction          D: people should be concerned about wild animals
42. The word “outweigh” in the passage is closest in meaning to……………….
        A: have the same value   B: be of greater importance    C: weigh heavier than    D: be less expensive
43. Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the supporters of genetic engineering?
        A: It has more advantages than weak points.          B: It will help to achieve record harvests.
        C: It can be controlled and stopped any moment.  D: It will mean breakthrough in medicine.
44. All of the following is mentioned in the passage EXCEPT……………….
        A: genetic engineering will save plants and insects from extinction
        B: certain genes can make some vegetables more delicious
        C: genetic engineering could help sick people
        D: it’s harmful to interfere in animal life
45. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage?
        A: Can genetic engineering be harmful to the environment?
        B: People can manage genetic engineering
        C: Genetic engineering: Superfoods
        D: Genetic engineering: Forward or Backward?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46. Had we left any later, we would have missed the train.
        A. We almost missed the train.                                
        B. We left too late to catch the train.
        C. We didn’t leave late and we still caught the train.
        D. Because the train was late we had no trouble catching it.
47. My friend works very hard so that he can make a success of his new business.
        A. My friend works very hard so as to avoid mistakes in his new business.
        B. With a view to becoming successful in his new job, my friend works very hard.
        C. My friend is very hard-working so he has made a success of his new business.
        D. My friend works very hard, so he can make a success of his new business.
48. “Absence makes the heart grow fonder.”
        A. Being apart from someone you love makes you love them less.
        B. Absence makes us grow older.
        C. Being apart from someone you love makes you love them more.
        D. Our heart needs absence to grow.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is different in meaning to each of the following questions.
49. “Get in my car. I’ll take you to the station.”
        A. He offered to give me a lift to the station.                 B. “Let me take me to the station in my car.”
        C. “Lend me the car and I’ll take you to the station.”   D. “Shall I take you to the station in my car?”
50. Notwithstanding the heavy storm, we managed to reach the habour.
        A. In spite of the fact that it blew heavily, we reached the habour.
        B. The heavy storm prevented us teaching the habour.
        C. Although the storm was serve, we succeeded in reaching the habour.
        D. The heavy storm didn’t stop us reaching the habour.
PRACTICE TEST 8
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. instruct                        B. industry                             C. duplicate                           D. junkyard
2. A. hesitate                        B. establish                            C. abstract                             D. research
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. masterpiece                B. dominant                           C. etiquette                            D. investment
4. A. exhibition                   B. professional                     C. theatrical                           D. adventurous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. The pottery makers of China were the first……………..to make porcelain, which is the finest type of pottery.
     A. to learn                        B. learn                                  C. learning                             D. to learning
6. Many graffiti……………..without the permission of the owner of the wall.
     A. is writing                     B. is written                           C. are written                        D. are writing
7. The United Nations organizes large international conferences,……………..people meet to discuss important world issues.
     A. that                              B. which                                 C. where                                 D. when
8. ……………..he followed my advice, he would not be unemployed now.
     A. Were                            B. Had                                    C. Should                               D. Unless
9. Scientists now understand……………..
     A. how to navigate over long distances the birds     B. how long distances navigate the birds
     C. how birds navigate over long distances                 D. how to distance the birds from navigating
10. Information from weather satellites is……………..for making weather forecast.
     A. valueless                     B. valuation                           C. unvalued                           D. invaluable
11. Scientists are now……………..with crops of buffalo gourds in Mexico and Lebanon.
     A. researching                 B. investigating                     C. experimenting                  D. cultivating
12. Thanks to an effective advertising……………..in the 1880s, cigarette smoking became widespread.
     A. policy                          C. campaign                          C. struggle                             D. promotion
13. Luckily the police decided not to……………..charges, but let him off with a warning.
     A. address                        B. record                                C. file                                     D. apply
14. If you can lend me your car today, I will……………..the favour next week.
     A. return                          B. pay                                     C. send                                   D. do
15. Tom doesn’t talk much to his father but he opens……………..his mother.
     A. out of                           B. up to                                  C. out for                               D. up with
16. My boss is always……………..at me for unreasonable reasons.
     A. putting                         B. taking                                C. getting                               D. talking
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
17. – Foreigner: “……………..”
      – Hoa: “Go straight. It’s on the corner of Holly and Rose. Next to the library.”
      A. Can you take me to the 3D Museum?                   B. Could you show me the way to the 3D Museum?
      C. I know it’s rude but where’s the 3D Museum?   D. Can I get to the 3D Museum by car?
18. – Teacher: “Jenny, you’ve made a good job on the project.”
      –  Jenny: “……………..”
      A. Oh. I guess so.          B. Never mention it.             C. Not really. I didn’t.          D. Thank you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. The proud lady refused to sit at the same table as those who were not as wealthy as her.
      A. terrific                       B. modest                               C. shy                                     D. conceited
20. The invention of laptop was a great change in computing.
      A. transformation         B. development                    C. revolution                         D. conversion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. The hotel was incredible with breathtaking view and excellent cuisine.
      A. unspoilt                     B. unimpressive                    C. unadorned                        D. untouched
22. Based on the clues found, the police managed to apprehend the suspect a few days after the bank robbery.
      A. question                    B. release                               C. capture                              D. sentence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
23. The doctor (A) recommended him (B) that he try (C) hormone replacement therapy. (D)
24. Our teacher has tried (A) to explain him the problem (B) but he still doesn’t (C) understand. (D)
25. I’m not sure (A) my younger brother (B) is enough experienced (C) to be a sales manager. (D)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
RED NOSE DAY
In 1985 there was a terrible famine in the African country of Sudan Richard Curtis, a British comedy writer, and his friend, Alexander Mendis saw the news reports and wanted to make difference. They began a charity called Comic Relief, (26)……………charity worker Jane Tewson.
In 1988, the charity had an idea of selling red plastic noses to raise money. It was the (27)…………… success, and selling red noses became a regular part of the Britain’s charity to organize sponsored events.
In 1997, BBC television supported Comic Relief with a whole afternoon and evenings of special TV programmes, calling it Red Nose Day.
People around Britain organized fundraising events around the same time and sent their money to Red Nose Day. In (28)……………, the event raised over £27 million for charity.
Since it began, Comic Relief has raised more than £600 million, (29)……………the generosity of the British public and the help of the celebrities who take part. The charity produces books, CDs and other items help to raise money. In 2001, JK Rowling wrote two books for Comic Relief based (30) ……………famous Harry Potter novels, and all the money from the sales went to the charity.
(Source: Solutions – Oxford University Press)
26. A. with the help of          B. in assistance by         C. in aid of           D. by the support with
27. A. large                          B. huge                                   C. giant                                   D. wide
28. A. together                     B. whole                                 C. total                                   D. sum
29. A. as a result                 B. in consequent                   C. in effect                             D. thanks to
30. A. form                           B. in                                        C. of                                        D. on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Spiders are not insects! They are actually arachnids – invertebrates (animals without backbones) that have eight legs and which inject venom. Spiders are found on every continent except Antarctica. There are over 44,000 known kinds of spiders. Spiders are found in every kind of habitat and are often found in homes!
Spiders are unique among animals in that many spin webs out of silk. The webs trap insects and other prey to be eaten later. Larger spiders, such as wolf spiders, huntsman, and tarantulas attack prey rather than spin webs. One spider that was recently discovered even flings itself at prey like a slingshot! Most spiders eat insects, but tarantulas and larger spiders will eat small lizards and mammals as well.
Many people fear spiders. In fact, a fear of spiders has its own name: Arachnophobia! Most spiders, however, are totally harmless to humans and are actually beneficial because they eat insect pests. Even the largest tarantula in existence, the Goliath Bird-eating Tarantula is harmless to humans. A tarantula bite is said to be about as painful as a bee sting. Some spiders, however, such as the Black Widow Spider, are dangerous to humans. Bites from these spiders usually require immediate medical attention.
(Source: mrnussbaum.com)  
31. Which group of animals do spiders belong to?
        A: arachnids                 B: tarantulas                          C: insects                               D: mammals
32. In which places are spiders not found?
        A: in desserts               B: in Antarctica                    C: in cold climate                 D: in homes
33. The word “unique” can be best replace by……………….
        A: different                  B: common                            C: identical                            D: various
34. According to the passage, some large spider……………….
        A: eats mammals rather than insects                        B: can launch themselves at prey
        C: may use slingshots to trap prey                           D: doesn’t make web out of silk
35. Which of the following is mentioned in the third paragraph?
        A: spider bites             B: the habitats of spiders    C: spider webs                      D: the diet of spiders
36. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to……………….
        A: arachnophobia       B: people who fear spiders               C: spiders                D: insects
37. Which of the following questions is NOT answered in the passage?
        A: How painful is a tarantula bite?                             B: How large is the biggest spider in the world?
        C: Is the Black Widow Spider harmful to humans?  D: What is the largest tarantula in existence?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The most common causes of tsunamis are underwater earthquakes. To understand underwater earthquakes, you must first understand plate tectonics. The theory of plate tectonics suggest that the lithosphere, or top layer of the Earth, is made of a series of huge plates. These plates make up the continents and seafloor. They rest on an underlying viscous layer called asthenosphere.
Think of a pie cut into eight slices. The pie crust would be the lithosphere and the hot sticky pie filling underneath would be the asthenosphere. On the Earth, these plates are constantly in motion, moving along each other at a speed 1 to 2 inches (2.5 – 5 cm) per year. The movement occurs most dramatically along fault lines (where the pie cut). These motions are capable of producing earthquakes and volcanism, which, when they occur at the bottom of the ocean, are two possible sources of tsunamis.
When two plates come into contact at a region known as a plate boundary, a heavier plate can slip under a lighter one. This is called subduction. Under water subduction often leaves enormous “handprints” in the form of deep ocean trenches along the seafloor. In some cases of subduction, part of the seafloor connected to the lighter plate may “snap up” suddenly due to the pressure from the sinking plate. This results in an earthquake. The focus of the earthquakes is the point within the earth where the rupture first occurs, rock break and the first seismic waves are generated. The epicenter is the point on the seafloor directly above the focus.
When this piece of the plate snaps up and sends tons of rock shooting upward with tremendous force, the energy of that force is transferred to the water. The energy pushes the water upward above normal sea level. This is the birth of the tsunami. The earthquake that generated the December 26, 2004 tsunami in the Indian Ocean was 9.0 on the Richter scale - one of the biggest in the recorded history.
(Source: Solomon Asea)  
38. Which of the following best states the topic of this text?
        A: The birth of a tsunami                                           B: The magnitude of tsunamis
        C: Tsunamis in the Indian Ocean                              D: Series of huge plate on Earth
39. According to the first paragraph, continents and seafloor are part of……………….
        A: lithosphere              B: asthenosphere                  C: plate tectonics                 D: huge plates
40. The word “which” in the passage refers to……………….
        A: these motions         B: earthquakes and volcanism          C: fault lines          D: tsunamis
41. It can be inferred from the passage that the earthquake will never occur when……………….
        A: the subduction is evidenced                                B: seismic waves are generated
        C: no fault line of plate tectonics happens             D: heavier plates and lighter ones break up
42. The place within the Earth where the first rupture occurs is called……………….
        A: the epicenter           B: the vocal                           C: the focus                           D: the center
43. The word “tremendous” in the passage is closet in meaning to……………….
        A: remarkable              B: huge                                   C: challenging                       D: explosive
44. Which of the following natural disasters happening in Indonesia (in the Indian Ocean) is related to the fault movement of plate tectonics?
        A: volcanic eruptions           B: soil erosion            C: forest fires                        D: floods
45. The following is mentioned in the passage about tsunamis, EXCEPT that they are……………….
        A: predictable following any incidence of earthquakes
        B: close to the rise of sea levels from the sinking plate
        C: connected to deep ocean trenches along the seafloors
        D: related to strong movements of plate tectonics
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46. Although engineers must make use of technology and innovations, these alone are not enough to pass engineering information.
A. Technology and innovation is essential for engineers. However, there is still more in order to transmit engineering information.
B. Engineering professionals advise to benefit from technology and advances so that they can pass on their engineering information.
C. Whatever technology or innovation engineers use, transformation of the engineering information they possess can never be passed through.
D. Almost all engineers have been interested in technology and advances in their fields, but they are generally bad at expressing their engineering information.
47. Unlike a high school education, a university education includes the application of knowledge.
      A. While in high school students have the chance to apply their knowledge, in university they don’t.
      B. High school students lack the opportunity to apply their knowledge that university students have.
C. High school education and university education are similar in that both include the application of knowledge.
D. A university education is more useful than a high school education since it allows the students to apply knowledge.
48. Had I realized what you intended to do, I would have backed you up.
      A. Even if I had realized what you wanted to do, I wouldn’t have supported you.
      B. In order to back you up, it is essential that I know what you intend to do.
      C. I didn’t support you as I had no idea about what your plans were.
      D. No sooner did I back you up than I realized what you intended to do.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of the sentences in the following questions.
49. The team leader allowed members to make important decisions. He fostered their spirit of commitment.
A. Allowing members to make important decisions, the team leader fostered their spirit of commitment.
B. On the behalf of the team, the leader made important decisions to foster their spirit of commitment.
C. Although the team leader wanted to foster the spirit of commitment among members, he made important decisions on his own.
D. All members could make important decision, so that the spirit of commitment would be discouraged. 
50. Winston Churchill was a great politician and statesman. He also won the Nobel Prize for literature.
        A. Winston Churchill won the Nobel Prize for literature so he was a great politician and statesman.
        B. Winston Churchill, a great politician and statesman, also won the Nobel Prize for literature.
C. Winston Churchill was a great politician rather than a statesman although he won the Nobel Prize for literature.
D. Winning the Nobel Prize for literature, Winston Churchill became a great politician and statesman.
PRACTICE TEST 9
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. depression                  B. aggression                         C. possibly                            D. pressure
2. A. exhibition                   B. explanation                      C. exchange                           D. exercise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. convenient                  B. anxiety                              C. available                           D. agriculture
4. A. improvement              B. willingness                       C. survival                             D. opponent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. He worked at workshops for free to develop his knowledge of classic vehicles,…………….his deep passion.
     A. as though                    B. now that                            C. due to                                D. even though
6. As the cost of living…………….in Vietnam, more and more women need to work outside the home.
     A. rises                             B. raises                                 C. gains                                  D. extends
7. In some restaurants, the waiter’s tip…………….in the bill. In others, you leave it separately.
     A. includes                      B. include                              C. is included                        D. are included
8. In the United States, the northern states and southern states fought a civil war…………….from 1861 to 1865.
     A. when it lasted             B. which was lasting            C. that lasted                         D. lasted
9. A giant meteor crashing into the Earth is believed…………….the extinction of dinosaur.
     A. to have caused           B. to cause                             C. having caused                  D. causing
10. It is concluded that frequent…………….to the sun can have a negative effect on the skin.
     A. exposure                     B. expose                               C. exposed                             D. exposedly  
11. Parents need to be able to modify their position in the…………….of what their child tells.
     A. bright                           B. light                                   C. lamp                                   D. torch
12. Items purchased in this store will only be replaced on production of a…………….receipt.
     A. reasonable                  B. valid                                  C. mint                                   D. adequate
13. Do you know that antibiotics was discovered by…………….? The scientist did not expect to discover such a useful medicine.
     A. probability                 B. chance                               C. opportunity                      D. time
14. The man who was just released from prison was…………….for robbing banks.
     A. disgusting                   B. infamous                           C. renowned                          D. memorable
15. Although I don’t like the way my sister messes up our room, I have learnt to…………….it.
     A. live with                      B. live on                               C. live by                               D. live to
16. Just before the lesson ended, the teacher…………….everything that she had taught.
     A. summed up                 B. made up                            C. showed up                        D. took up
 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
17. – Excuse me, could you take our picture?”
      – “……………...”
      A. We can restore it. You can get it tomorrow.       
      B. Sure, give me your camera. OK, say cheese everyone!
      C. I’m sorry. My mobile phone needs recharging!
      D. It’s a pity that I don’t have a family picture here.
18. – “It’s my birthday today.”
      – “……………...”
      A. Great. It’s a wonderful day.                         B. Do I have to give you a present?
      C. Is it? Oh, well, many happy returns.            D. Oh, I’m sorry that I haven’t prepared any present.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. The shoplifter immediately admitted to her crime to the security guard.
      A. agreed                        B. acknowledged                  C. pleased                              D. confessed
20. Think carefully before making a decision. Do not be rash.
      A. careless                     B. arrogant                             C. rapid                                  D. impulsive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. No one liked James because he always insulted them.
      A. praised                       B. scolded                              C. respected                          D. admired
22. Hoa is a rather rigid person who does not like to have many changes in his life. 
      A. fierce                         B. flexible                              C. determined                       D. incompatible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
23. We knew there was a gas leak because it smelled really badly inside the house.
24. They don’t let us to send (A) our clients (B) gifts without getting approval from (C) management first. (D)
25. I’m so glad that he spoke in my behalf (A) because I felt awful (B) that I couldn’t make it (C) to the event. (D)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Livestock farmers in developing countries have a relatively small environmental footprint and their animals provide them (26)……………..food, income and transport for their crops, said Mario Herrero. "What these farmers need are technological options and economic incentives that help them (27)……………..their production in sustainable ways," he added.
Herrero Steinfeld, coordinator of the Livestock, Environment and Development Initiative at the Food and Agriculture Organization, said: "If one were able to connect this to smallholder development by making poor farmers benefit through the possibility of carbon offsets and carbon markets that would indeed create a (28)……………..situation where one would have socioeconomic benefits, targeting poor people, while reducing the carbon 'hoofprints' [the carbon footprint of livestock]".
Improving livestock production should be done to improve (29)……………..and not just for climate reasons, Kirtana Chandrasekaran, food campaigner for Friends of the Earth, told SciDev.Net. She added that intensive agriculture is also contributing to biodiversity loss (30)…………….."it's very dangerous" just to look at lowering emissions "when there's a whole host of other factors affecting improvement in livestock farming".
(Source: www.scidev.net)
26. A. with                           B. for                                      C. of                                        D. from
27. A. enlarge                      B. extend                               C. intensify                            D. expand
28. A. fifty –fifty                B. half-and-half                    C. win-win                             D. all-in-one
29. A. livelihoods               B. standard                            C. condition                          D. state
30. A. otherwise                  B. nevertheless                     C. so                                       D. as
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Once upon a time, a businessman named Ray Kroc discovered a restaurant owned by two brothers. The restaurant served just four things: hamburgers, French fries, milk shakes and coca cola. But it was clean and inexpensive, and the service was quick. Mr Kroc liked it so much that he paid the brothers so that he could use their idea and their name: McDonald’s.

Beef, big business and fast service were the ingredients when Mr Kroc opened his first McDonald’s in 1955. Four years later there were 100 of them. Kroc knew Americans liked success. So he put signs saying how many millions of McDonald’s hamburgers people had bought. In just four years, the number was one hundred million. Now, there are more than 13,000 McDonald’s restaurants from Dallas to Paris and from Moscow to Beijing.

Anyone who wants to open a McDonald’s must first work in one for a week. Then they do a nine-month training programme in the restaurants and at ‘McDonald’s University’ in Chicago. There they learn the McDonald’s philosophy: quality control, service and cheap prices. McDonald’s has strict rules: Hamburgers must be served before they are ten minutes old, and French fries, seven.

McDonald’s has never stopped looking for new methods to attract customers, from drive-in windows to birthday parties. Chicken, fish, salad and, in some place, pizza are now on the menu. Their international popularity shows they have found the recipe for success.
(Source: www.tolearnenglish .com)
31. What initially attracted Mr Kroc about the brothers’ restaurant?
        A. He thought the food was excellent.                    
        B. There was a wide range of food and drink.
        C. The service was good and the food and drink were cheap.
        D. He wanted to use the brothers’ idea.
32. Who is McDonald’s named after?
        A. Two brothers unrelated to Mr. Kroc.                  B. Mr. Kroc’s brothers.
        C. Mr. Kroc’s boss.                                                     D. Two brothers related to Mr. Kroc.
33. Why did Kroc specify the number of hamburgers sold?
        A. He thought Americans would respond to figures by buying more.
        B. Because in four years sales were one hundred million.
        C. It was important to keep a close count on the numbers sold.
        D. He wanted to attract more investors to open more restaurants. 
34. What do students acquire at the McDonald’s university?
        A. The McDonald’s philosophy.                             
        B. The ingredients of a McDonald’s hamburger.
        C. How to apply the McDonald’s method of cooking.
        D. The rules for employees.
35. What does the last paragraph mainly discuss?
        A. A number of dishes are served at McDonald’s.                B. They sell mainly vegetarian food.
        C. They are happy to sell hamburgers everywhere.               D. The reasons why they are successful.
36. The word “recipe” in the passage is closest in meaning to…………….
        A. instruction               B. formula                             C. philosophy                       D. methodology
37. According to the passage, all of the statements are true EXCEPT……………..
        A. McDonald’s is not innovative in their methods.
        B. McDonald’s is both a domestic and international food chain.
        C. McDonald’s is a rapidly growing food chain. 
        D. McDonald’s is not a multi cuisine restaurant.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Banking and banks are very important for the functioning of the modern world. Without banks the way we use money would not work. Banks enable people to save money, borrow money and to pay for things with ease and security.
Each country in the world has its own well known banks that have branches in nearly every city so that they are convenient for people to use. People often have to visit the local branch of the bank when they want certain services. There are also some very big multinational banks that have branches in most countries in the world.
As well as the local branches that are in most cities, each bank will also have a head office. This is where all central tasks are performed that let the local braches function. The people that work in the branches will be the bank manager, the person in charge, and various tellers who work behind the bank counter and help the customers. There will also likely be security guards to protect the money, workers and customers.
Most customers will just need to see the tellers when they go to the bank if they are paying money into their account as either cash or a check. However, they might need to see the bank manager if they want to open an account or if they have become overdraw, when they have spent more money than there was in the account. Also if they want to borrow money and get a loan the person will need to see the bank manager who will have to approve it.
As well as being able to use cash or checks to pay for things, banks also offer their customers the more convenient methods of using either a debit card or credit card. These methods are very convenient as you just need to carry a small plastic card to be able to pay for anything. When paying with plastic you will need to either sign a receipt or enter a PIN number to conform the purchase and that you are authorized to use the card.
(Source: ww.excellentesl4u.com)
38. According to the text, what do banks enable people to do?
      A. Buy products.                                                                         B. Save money for the future.
      C. Get money now that they have to pay back later.              D. All of the above.
39. The word “they” in the passage refers to……………..
      A. people                        B. customers                         C. branches                           D. well-known banks
40. What is the purpose of the head office of a bank?
      A. To support the local branches to work properly.                                                          B. To offer services to local customers.
      C. To work with other banks.                                                 D. To look impressive.
41. What do bank tellers do?
      A. They protect the money.                                         B. They help the customers.
      C. They arrange loans for customers.                        D. They are in charge of the bank branch.
42. What happens when a bank customer spend more money than they have in their account?
      A. They will need to see the security guard.  
     B. They will have to go to the police station.
     C. They will have to have a meeting with the bank manager.
     D They will have to borrow money from the bank.
43. According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT……………
     A. every bank issues either debit card or credit card.
     B. the head office will control its branches functions
     C. a customer needs the bank manager’s approval if he wants to get a loan
      D. a multinational banks have branches in many countries
44. Which of the following methods is more convenient when paying for something than using a check?
      A Using a plastic card                                    B Using cash
     C There is not a more convenient method.     D With an exchange of products.
45. The word “authorized” in the passage can be replaces by…………….
      A. given official permission                                       B. given an opportunity
      C. made allowance for                                                 D. appointed a task
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46. She should have urged him to consult an attorney before making legal decisions.
      A. He consulted an attorney but he made wrong decisions.
      B. It is wrong for her to encourage him to make legal decisions without consulting an attorney.
      C. He is thought to have consulted an attorney before making legal decisions.
      D. She had made legal decisions before he consulted an attorney.
47. In the hope of travelling abroad, she looked for a part-time job.
      A. She wanted to travel abroad without having to do a part-time job.
      B. She thought she could find a part-time job when she was abroad.
      C. She didn’t worry about the part-time job so she travelled abroad.
      D. She looked for a part-time job as she wanted to travel abroad.
48. Mai thinks that issue of promoting made-in-Vietnam products is important to write about.
      A. Mai thinks that made-in Vietnam products should be promoted.
      B. Mai feels that writing about promoting made-in-Vietnam products is worthwhile.
      C. Mai believes she should go in detail about the promotion of made-in-Vietnam products
      D. Mai thinks that she can write to advertise made-in Vietnam products.
 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is different in meaning to each of the following questions.
49. Restored by experts, the old house regained its former glory.
      A. Because experts restored the old house, it regained its former glory.
      B. Experts restored the old house, which helped it regain its former glory.
      C. When the old house regained its former glory, experts restored it.
      D. The old house regained its former glory, due to being restored by experts.
50. Friendly as he may seem, he is unreliable.
      A. He seems friendly but he is unreliable.                B. He is unreliable although he seems friendly. 
      C. In spite of being friendly, he’s unreliable.           D. He seems friendly so he is unreliable. 
PRACTICE TEST 10
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. thoughtless                 B. theoretical                        C. though                               D. thank
2. A. abolished                    B. heightened                        C. impressed                         D. influenced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. profession                   B. performer                          C. architect                            D. suggestion
4. A. biology                        B. sociology                          C. geography                         D. psychology
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. My worse exam moment happened when I was caught……………in my exam.
     A. cheat                            B. to cheat                             C. cheating                            D. to cheating
6. Scientists say that a child’s brain actually……………a new language differently than an adult’s brain does.
     A. learnt                           B. have learnt                        C. learns                                 D. is learning
7. I wish they……………me for the coffee tasting group. I didn’t sleep all night.
     A. didn’t choose             B. wouldn’t choose              C. hadn’t chosen                  D. is learning
8. ……………a colleague, I find her cooperative and likable.
     A. Same                            B. Unlike                               C. As                                       D. Like
9. The higher you climb,……………you have to fall.
     A. the further                  B. the further than                C. further than                      D. the furthest
10. Email and instant messaging services have……………global communication.
     A. revolutionised           B. revolutionary                   C. revolution                         D. revolutionarily
11. While on a tour, tourists are only given a……………time at each place of attraction.
     A. confined                     B. limited                               C. particular                          D. certain
12. Those who do not exercise at all are more……………to falling ill.
     A. open                            B. prone                                 C. immune                             D. ready
13. You must think……………before you make decision to sell the house. 
     A. rationally                    B. consequently                    C. understandably                D. reasonably
14. The president……………tribute to all the people who had supported him.
     A. made                            B. gave                                   C. paid                                    D. returned
15. The rude student……………when she was scolded by the teacher.
     A. took down                  B. answered back                 C. paid back                          D. turned down
16. My colleagues have promised to……………when I tell the manager about my ideas.
     A. back up me                 B. back me up                       C. cut me off                         D. cut off me
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
17. – “Have a nice weekend.”
      – “…………………”
      A. My pleasure.                     B. So polite                    C. Same to you.                     D. Never mind.
18. – “Thanks for inviting me to dinner.”
      – “…………………”
      A. Don’t worry about it.                         B. You’re welcome. Come in and make yourself at home.
      C. There’s no need to say that.               D. Take it easy. Cheer up.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. I felt let down when my parents broke their promise to buy me a pet on my birthday.
      A. discouraged              B. disappointed                    C. frustrated                          D. upset
20. Some seahorses are not easily spotted because they are clear and can be easily seen through.
      A. transparent                B. invisible                            C. crystal                               D. white
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
21. Medical techniques are becoming more sophisticated all the time.
     A. various                        B. basic                                  C. developed                         D. complex
22. On Saturday wearing uniforms is optional so I often choose T-shirt and shorts.
     A. compulsory                B. voluntary                          C. acceptable                        D. uncomfortable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
23. The fish are dead (A) because of (B) contaminants from the local (C) chemical factory have got (D) into the river.
24. There is no denying (A) that technology continues (B) to improving (C) and become available to (D) more people.
25. The Oscars award (A) ceremony is one of the most famous ceremonies (B) in the world, and is watched lively (C) on TV in over 200 countries. (D)
Bottom of Form
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase the best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Crocodiles are the world’s largest reptiles. Some species of other animals have become (26)………..…. but the crocodiles have not experienced such a fate. All 23 species of the crocodiles are still surviving. There are two types of crocodiles found in Australia, freshwater and estuarine. Their long jaws, protective armor, streamlined bodies and long tails make them very suitable for living in aquatic (27)………..…. like swamps and rivers.
Crocodiles are cold-blooded. Their body temperature changes (28)………..….the temperature of the air, water and land of its surrounding. Freshwater crocodiles can be found at the rivers and swamps in some parts of Australia. They have  narrow snout and reasonably straight jawline with even-sized teeth. Unlike the estuarine crocodiles, they are not 'man-eaters' and (29)………..….mainly on insects, frogs, lizards, turtles, with bats, birds and small mammals.
The estuarine crocodiles, (30)………..…., are found mainly in the warm climate of Sri Lanka, India, Myanmar as well as other some countries in Southeast Asia and Australia. They have broader snouts than freshwater crocodiles, with an uneven 'up and down' jawline and irregular-sized teeth. It is estimated that they can live for at least 70 to 100 years.
(Source: englishdaily626.com)
26. A. extinct                       B. disappeared                      C. vanishing                          D. stopped
27. A. settings                      B. backgrounds                     C. surroundings                    D. ecosystem
28. A. agreeing with           B. according to                     C. depend on                         D. opposed to
29. A. raise                           B. eat                                      C. feed                                    D. take
30. A. whereas                     B. in spite of                          C. on the other hand            D. in contrast to
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
IN THE WOMB: ANIMALS
Each year, millions of women have ultrasounds performed during their pregnancy. This procedure is often a cautionary measures to see if there are any visible birth defects. It also provides an opportunity for soon-to-be parents to find out the sex of their child. In the animal world, ultrasounds allow researchers to study the growth of creatures both big and small. National Geographic Channel, which gave us the first In the Womb about humans, is back with In the Womb: Animals.
Using the latest in ultrasound inventions, In the Womb: Animals serves a dual purpose. First, it allows viewers to watch the month-by-month development of three animals. Three- and four-D technology is used to show each stage of growth for elephant, dog, and dolphin fetus. This extraordinary footage has never been captured on film before and shows in detail how these creatures develop.
Second, while watching these animals grow, we can get an idea about their species' evolutionary development over thousands of years. In addition, this mind-blowing footage shows how at 40 days, the dog fetus opens its mouth and pants. Twenty-three days later, it has all of the senses necessary to survive outside the womb.
With a pregnancy that lasts 10 months, women have it relatively easy. Elephants, on the other hand, are pregnant for 22 months. In the womb, each week is crucial to the development of the fetus. At 18 weeks, it begins to exercise and strengthen its legs and trunk. At birth, the baby elephant outweighs a human baby by at least a staggering 117 kilograms.
In the Womb: Animals follows in the footsteps of its predecessor In the Womb. Both shows deliver beautiful babies that generations present and future will cherish.
(Source: englishdaily626.com)
31. What might be seen on In the Womb: Animals?
        A: The growth of a dolphin's fin during its time in the womb.
        B: The destruction of natural habitats for wild dogs.
        C: The development of the elephant population in Thailand.
        D: The negative effects of using ultrasounds on animals.
32. Which of the following isn't a given reason why ultrasounds are used on animals?
        A: To learn how they've changed over the years.  B: To discuss the need for animal birth control.
        C: To watch them grow from month to month.       D: To look at them out of curiosity.
33. In comparison to an elephant, a woman……………….
        A: has a similar period of pregnancy                      
        B: experiences the exact same amount of emotional turmoil
        C: doesn't have to endure such a long period of pregnancy                                
        D: has more difficulty getting pregnant
34. The word "it" in the passage refers to……………….
        A: the footage              B: the dog fetus                    C: the dog's mouth               D: the dog's pants
35. According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT……………….
        A: ultrasounds play an important part in researching the creatures' development
        B: In the Womb: Animals helps trace the evolution of species
        C: the baby elephant weighs 117 times as much as the human baby
        D: ultrasounds assist in detecting birth defects
36. Who would be interested in a program of this nature?
        A: Someone with a fear of animals                          B: Women who are interested in babysitting
        C: Doctors specializing in plastic surgery              D: People with a general interest in nature
37. The phrase "follows in the footsteps of" in the passage can be best replaced by……………….
        A: copies the content of     B: does the same job as      C: supports the evidence of    D: links with
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The story seems to begin in Ethiopia, where the coffee berry grew wild. Goatherds there noted that goats which ate leaves and berries of the plant remained awake all night. The Arabs claim that they developed the plant during the reign of Mohammed (c675 AD). Believe that if you wish - we are going with the Ethiopian story. Consumed originally as a food, it would take on the character of a medicinal and eventually that of a social drink.

The coffee tree grows to a height of 14 to 20 feet, producing (along with bright green leaves and white flowers) a berry which, as it matures, goes from green to yellow to red. Harvested red, they are placed in water so that the good berries will sink and all the debris will float. The berries are then pulped to extract the beans, there being two beans per berry, the beans having a bluish-green color.

Next they are dried and cured for several weeks, becoming hard and yellow. Roasting is next, at the high temperature of 900 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 minutes, then they are stored (aged) and eventually ground into coarse granules. One is obliged to wonder how this all came about: who was the first to decide that roasting the beans would do anything good to them?

The decaffeinated type of coffee is made by treating the green beans with chlorine-based solvents prior to the rest of the process.

There are some 30 species of the plant, the most important being: Brazilian, Mild, Robusta (or "African") and Arabian, the last being the predominant tree of the Americas. 

Discovered by Arabs traveling in Ethiopia in the 13th century, it was taken to Arabia and flourished at Mocha in Yemen, where the Arabic name for it was "qahwah" and from that word to "coffee". It's popularity steadily increased. In the 1500s it arrived in Turkey, and in Italy in the 1600s. About this time, establishments for preparing the drink ("coffee houses") sprang up all over Europe.

In 1714 the French succeeded in bringing a live cutting to their island of Martinique, and, from that single plant, coffee growing spread throughout Central and South America. Meanwhile, the Portuguese introduced the plant into their colony of Brazil, where it took readily. In fact, Brazil today produces 25% of the world's coffee, and Central and South America combined produces two-thirds of the world's supply. Since coffee grows in Java and Southeast Asia, an alternate name for coffee is "java".

Then Starbucks came along and showed how coffee could be jazzed up by adding other things to it. At a hefty price.
(Source: All You Need To Know About CoffeeBy Paul V. Hartman)
38. Which of the following indicates the main theme of this passage?
        A. Contravention of coffee berries.                         B. Extraction of coffee in ancient times.
        C. Uses of coffee.                                                        D. Origin and spread of coffee.
39. Coffee berry is used to make all of the following EXCEPT………………
        A. food                          B. detergent                           C. medicine                           D. beverage
40. The colour of the ripe berries from which coffee is made is………………
        A. red                            B. green                                  C. brown                                D. yellow
41. The word “obliged” can be best replaced by………………
        A. suggested                 B. compelled                         C. amused                              D. informed
42. According to the passage, which of the following is correct?
        A. Yellow berries are pulped to extract green beans.
        B. There are two beans in one coffee berry.
        C. Roasting the beans would not do any good to them.
        D. Coffee should be cooked for seventeen minutes.
43. Which of the processes is used to decaffeinate the coffee?
        A. The berries are ground into granules.                
        B. The berries are placed in water.
        C. The berries are stored for few months.   
        D. The berries are treated with a chlorine-based substance.
44. The phrase “About this time” in the passage refers to………………
        A. the 1500s                 B. the 1600s                          C. the 13th century                D. 1714
45. Which of the following continents fulfills most of the world’s demand for coffee?
        A. Asia                          B. America                            C. Africa                                D. Europe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46. The prices on the menu aren’t nearly as expensive as I expected.
        A. The prices on the menu are much cheaper than I expected.
        B. The prices on the menu are a little cheaper than I expected.
        C. The prices on the menu are not as cheap as I expected.
        D. The prices on the menu do not live up to my expectation.
47. If we missed the flight, we wouldn’t be on the beach now.
        A. We missed the flight and now we are not on the beach.
        B. We didn’t miss the flight and we are on the beach now.
        C. We missed the flight but we are now on the beach.
        D. We were on the beach and now we don’t miss the flight.
48. I read a book while I was waiting at the airport, which was very boring.
        A. While I was waiting at the airport, I read a book that is boring.
        B. Waiting at the airport is boring and I read a book that is boring.
        C. I read a book about the airport while I was waiting.
        D. The boring book helped me kill time at the airport.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of the sentences in the following questions.
49. He was rejected by his family. He decided to become a monk.
        A. He was rejected by his family enabled him to become a monk.
        B. Rejected by his family, he decided to become a monk.
        C. If he became a monk, he wouldn’t rejected by his family.
        D. Even if he became a monk, he was rejected by his family.
50. The president failed to explain the cause of the crisis. He did not offer any solutions.
        A. Although the president explained the cause of the crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.
        B. Not only did the president explain the cause of the crisis, he also offered solutions.
        C. The president offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the crisis.
        D. The president failed to explain the cause of the crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.